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Physics SPH4U

This course enables students to deepen their understanding of the concepts and theories of physics, Students will explore further the laws of dynamics and energy transformations, and will investigate electrical, gravitational, and magnetic fields; electromagnetic radiations; and the interface between energy and matter. The will further develop inquiry skills, learning, for example, how the interpretation of experimental data can provide indirect evidence to support the development of a scientific model. Students will also consider the impact on society and the environment of technological applications of physics. Prerequisite: Grade 11 Physics SPH3U

Dynamics: Kinematics and Forces

Projectile Motion: Kinematics Theory of V1y and V2y of two objects dropped from same height

A golf ball is dropped straight down, and a bowling ball is rolled off a horizontal tabletop. If the golf ball and bowling ball are dropped from the same height at the same time, then how do the vertical components of their final velocities compare at the ground? (Ignoring air resistance) Solution

Projectile Motion: Kinematics, Uniform and Non-Uniform Motion

A little kid throws a ball horizontally off a cliff, from 20 meters above the ground below, and it hits the ground with a horizontal distance of 5.0 m from the cliff.

The initial, vertical component of velocity (v1 y) is equal to the initial, horizontal component of velocity (v1 x).. Solution
The ball is thrown horizontally so the initial velocity is purely in the horizontal direction (and zero in the vertical direction).

The initial, vertical component of velocity (v1 y) = 0 m/s

If the ball's trajectory is separated into components, the time it takes for the ball to travel the horizontal distance (dx) equals the time it takes for the ball to travel the vertical distance (dy). Solution
tx = ty

The time it takes for the ball to travel in the horizontal direction is the same as the time it takes to travel vertically.

Determine the initial (horizontal) speed that the ball was thrown, neglecting air resistance. Solution

Parabolic Motion

The path of a projectile that has an approximate parabolic trajectory from point A to E is shown below where A and E are on the same horizontal plane (and B and D are on the same horizontal plane). Neglect air resistance.

A B C D E

The total velocity is constant. Solution
The total velocity is constantly changing due to gravity accelerating the projectile at ±9.81 m/s2, in the vertical component.

At which point is the magnitude of the vertical component of velocity greatest ? Solution
The vertical velocity (Vy) is always changing direction and magnitude, due to the constant influence of gravity's acceleration in the vertical direction.

Interesting Points:
A = – E
B = – D
C = 0 m/s

The horizontal or vertical components of velocity are never zero. Solution
The vertical component of velocity is 0 m/s at point C.

Given the horizontal component of velocity at point A is 5 m/s, determine the horizontal components of velocity at the other 4 points, (B, C, D, and E) Solution
There is no acceleration in the horizontal direction.

Velocity is uniform in the horizontal direction.

The horizontal component of velocity is constant, 5 m/s.

Velocity is uniform in the horizontal (x) direction, so the formula below is used for it. Solution d = v · t
The horizontal velocity (Vx) is constant!

(It's the vertical velocity that changes due to gravity because it is in the same vertical direction as gravity. This vertical change is what causes the overall trajectory to have non-uniform motion, even though the horizontal velocity is constant).

Projectile Motion: Kinematics, Uniform and Non-Uniform Motion

A toy rocket with no thrusters is fired straight (horizontally) at a target with an initial speed of 700 m/s. As the rocket travels through the air towards the target, it drops a vertical distance of 0.05m from the centre of the target.

If the rocket trajectory is separated into components, the time it takes for the rocket to travel the horizontal distance (dx) equals the time it takes for the rocket to travel the vertical distance (dy). Solution
tx = ty

The time it takes for the rocket to travel in the horizontal direction is the same as the time it takes to travel vertically.

Which two of the following statements is true about the rocket's motion after it is launched? Solution
On Earth's surface there is always acceleration in the vertical direction, it's gravity!

Acceleration equals zero in the horizontal direction because there are no thrusters and we can neglect air resistance, so motion is uniform.

Calculate the horizontal distance from the rocket launcher to the target. Solution
d =
Hint Clear Info
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m
Hint Unavailable

Projectile Motion: Kinematics, Uniform and Non-Uniform Motion

A ball rolls 10m/s down a hill angled at 30˚ to the horizontal and then off a cliff that's 25m high.

If the positive direction is defined as up and to the right, determine the magnitude of the vertical component of the initial velocity. Solution
Use trigonometry to solve for the vertical component of velocity.

In this case, the vertical component of velocity uses sin (while horizontal uses cos, not shown here). v1 y is down and negative, since up is defined as positive.

Calculate the horizontal distance travelled by the ball before hitting the ground. Solution
d =
Hint Clear Info
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m
Hint Unavailable

Projectile Motion: Kinematics Theory of what goes up at V1y must come down at -V1y

How does initial vertical velocity (V1y) compare to final vertical velocity (V2y), on the same horizontal plane, in the projectile motion of an object thrown straight upwards? [2] Solution Video
Hint Clear Info
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Hint Unavailable

Projectile Motion: Kinematics, Uniform and Non-Uniform Motion, Find v

A projectile is launched in a parabolic trajectory at an unknown angle from the horizontal, and lands 100m horizontally from where it was launched.

The final vertical velocity where the projectile lands is equal in magnitude and opposite in direction to the initial vertical velocity where it was launched. Solution
Since the projectile lands at the same horizontal plane from where it was launched:

v2y = -v2y

The quantities have opposite signs because they are in opposite directions.

The velocity in the vertical (y-component) direction is non-uniform, while the velocity in the horizontal (x-component) direction is uniform. Solution
Since there is gravity acting in the vertical (y-component) direction, then it is non-uniform.

Since there is no acceleration in the horizontal (x-component), then the motion is uniform and d = vt.

If the projectile was in the air for a total of 4.0 seconds, find the initial velocity of the projectile at launch. Solution
Hint Clear Info
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m/s
Hint Unavailable

Projectile Motion: Kinematics, Uniform and Non-Uniform Motion, Find t without v

A frog jumps at an angle of 50˚ to the horizontal and lands 0.9m horizontally from its initial position. Find the time the frog was in the air during its parabolic flight. Solution
t =
Hint Clear Info
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s
This one is trickier because we don't have 'v', so we use the components in terms of 'v'

Projectile Motion: Kinematics, Uniform and Non-Uniform Motion

A PGA golfer can hit a hole-in-one shot from the fairway a certain distance from the green, and 20m vertically above the fairway. Lets say the golf ball leaves the club at 70 m/s at an angle of elevation 65˚ to the horizontal.

When the golf ball first reaches 20m above the fairway, the vertical component of velocity (vy) is equal in magnitude and opposite in direction to the vy at the green. Solution
True

For how much time was the ball in the air? Solution
t =
Hint Clear Info
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s
It helps to split the motion into two phases, with the separation located at the horizontal line level with the plane of the green.

Kinematic System of Equations

A baseball is projected downward at 10 m/s from 12m above the ground at the same time that a golf ball is released from rest from 10 m above the ground. The balls travel vertically and this question neglects air resistance.

When the balls meet at the same horizontal plane in the air, their distance travelled and time travelled will be the same for each ball. Solution
When the balls meet at the same horizontal plane in the air, their distance above the ground and time travelled will be the same for each ball.

Determine the distance the golf ball travels in the air when the two balls meet at the same horizontal level. Solution
Hint Clear Info
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m
Hint Unavailable
Let x represent the distance the golf ball travels until the balls meet...

Given for Golf Ball:
v1 = +0 m/s downward
a = +9.81 m/s2 downward
distance from ground = 10 m
distance until balls meet = x
Given for Baseball:
v1 = +10 m/s downward
a = +9.81 m/s2 downward
distance from ground = 12 m
distance until balls meet = x + 2
Make an equation ① for distance the golf ball travels until the two balls meet Make an equation ② for distance the baseball travels until the two balls meet Set ① equal to ② with your distance variable, the x's... Use the time to find the distance the golf ball travels with ① Therefore the balls will meet once the golf ball has travelled 0.2 m in the air.

Kinematic System of Equations II

A soccer ball is kicked into the air and down the field at 20 m/s with an angle of inclination of 35˚ to the horizontal. 2 seconds after the ball was kicked, the receiving player drops a piece of gum out of their mouth, from rest, 1.6 m above the ground. At some point in time, the soccer ball and the gum meet at the same level.

What is true about the point where the soccer ball and the gum meet? Solution
At the point where the soccer ball and the gum meet...
  • At the point where the ball and gum meet, they will be the same distance above the ground.
  • At the point where the ball and gum meet, the same amount of time will have elapsed.
  • At the 2 second mark, the soccer ball will have a vertical velocity downward while the gum will have zero initial velocity.

The y-component of the initial velocity of the ball is... Solution
Make a right angle triangle where the hypotenuse is 20 m/s, the y-component is the opposite side length...

Determine the height of the ball above the ground and the y-component of velocity of the ball at the 2 second mark. Solution
Hint Clear Info
dy = m above
vy = m/s down
Incorrect Attempts:
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Hint Unavailable
Givens:
a = -9.81 m/s2
v1 (y) = +20sin30˚ up
t = 2 s
Find v2 (y)...

Determine the height above the ground where the ball and gum meet. Solution
Let x be the distance above the ground where the ball and gum meet. Since we have the height above the ground we can write the distances traveled in terms of the height where they meet, x... TO MAKE IT EASIER FOR YOU, NOW WE WILL DEFINE DOWN WITH A POSITIVE DISPLACEMENT...
  • The displacement from the ball to the meeting point is (3.32 - x)
  • The displacement from the gum to the meeting point is (1.6 - x)
Redefine Vector Signs of Givens:
(Down = positive, Up = Negative)
a = + 9.81 m/s2 down
v1 ball = +8.15 m/s down
v1 gum = 0 m/s
dball = +(3.32 - x) down
dgum = +(1.6 - x) down
① Distance traveled by the ball: ② Distance traveled by the gum: Solve the system of equations (2 equations, 2 unknowns) using substitution: ② in ① ... Calculate height above the ground, x using equation ②...

Angle of Inclination, Theta θ

Show with a sketch, how the angle of inclination on an inclined plane relates to Fg and FN. Solution

Angle of Inclination, Theta θ

As the angle θ of inclination increases and the object does not move, state whether the following values increase, decrease, or if there is no change: Solution

a) Weight

b) Normal Force

c) Force of Friction

What is Acceleration?

Objects are accelerating when there is a change of direction and/or speed. Solution
You know that objects accelerate when the speed changes, but did you also know that an object is technically accelerating when the speed is constant and the direction changes?

For instance, an object traveling at a constant speed while changing direction in a circular path, would be considered as accelerating.

Kinematics and Forces

A vehicle comes to rest over a distance of 100m from an initial velocity of 30 m/s. Calculate the coefficient of kinetic friction (µk), neglecting air resistance. Solution
µk =
Hint Clear Info
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This question uses a combination of kinematics and forces
FIRST - set up the kinematic equation to solve for acceleration given v1, v2, and d... SECOND - set up a net force equation with the force due to friction...
The only force in the horizontal direction is the force due to friction... this is the net force. Also you know that in the vertical direction: FN = -Fg ...

Net Force with FA and FN not always equal to Fg

A parent is pushing their child in a stroller, with a total combined mass of the child and stroller of 30kg, and with an applied force of 100N at an angle of depression of 40˚.

The magnitude of the normal force of the ground on the stroller is equal to the force of gravity on the combined mass of the child and stroller. Solution Video
The magnitude of the normal force of the ground on the stroller is equal to the force of gravity on the combined mass of the child and stroller plus the vertical component of the applied force.

Calculate the normal force in this situation, neglecting friction. Solution Video
FN =
Hint Clear Info
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N
Hint Unavailable

Newton's 2nd Law: Inclined Planes, with Friction

A crate is stuck to the surface of an inclined plane with the force of friction. If the angle of inclination of the surface from the horizontal is 30˚, find the minimum coefficient of static friction, µs required to keep the crate from sliding down. Solution Video
µs =
Hint Clear Info
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You don't need the mass, because it will eventually cancel in your equations.

Newton's 2nd Law: Inclined Planes, with Friction, with Kinematics

Determine the time it takes for a skier to go (from rest) down a ski hill due to gravity if the angle of inclination of the hill is 25˚ from the horizontal, the coefficient of kinetic friction is 0.10, and the distance travelled by the skier on the hill face is 900m. Solution Video
t =
Hint Clear Info
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s
Mass will eventually cancel in the equations

Newton's 2nd Law: Inclined Planes, Frictionless

Two inclined planes with blocks on them are placed back to back. The inclined plane on the left side has a mass of 3m on it and angle of inclination of 30˚ to the horizontal, while the inclined plane on the right side has a mass of 1m on it, and is at an angle of 60˚ to the horizontal. Find the acceleration of the system of two masses if the inclined planes are frictionless. Solution
a =
Hint Clear Info
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m/s2
Resolve the components that oppose on either side. Mass will eventually cancel in the equations.

Newton's 2nd Law: Pulley with Two Masses Hanging on Either Side, Frictionless

A mass m1 hangs on one side of a frictionless pulley while a heavier mass m2 hangs on the other side. Find the acceleration of the system of masses on this pulley in terms of m1, m2, and g. Solution Video

Newton's 2nd Law: Pulley with Mass on a Table, Frictionless

A hanging 10N weight pulls down on a rope which is attached with a frictionless pulley to a 50N weight resting on the surface of a flat, frictionless table. Find the net acceleration of the system. Solution Video
aNET =
Hint Clear Info
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m/s2
Net Force = (total mass)(acceleration)

Newton's 2nd Law: Pulley with Mass on a Table, with Friction

A hanging 12kg mass pulls down on a rope that is attached with a frictionless pulley to a 10kg mass resting on the surface of a flat table with a coefficient of kinetic friction (µ) of 0.40. Find the net acceleration of the system. Solution Video
aNET =
Hint Clear Info
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m/s2
Net Force = (Force due to Gravity) - (Force due to Friction)

Suspended Masses and Tension

A basic 2000 kg transport helicopter has a maximum thrust of 60 kN, and is carrying a 500 kg crate of survival supplies for an outpost research community with an inextensible, heavy-duty steel cable.

Calculate the tension force in the cable connected to the crate when the helicopter is hovering stationary in the air. Solution
Hint Clear Info
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N
Hint Unavailable
At rest, the tension force is equal and opposite the force due to gravity of the crate. (Define up as positive).

Determine the acceleration of the helicopter when it takes off vertically with an upward thrust at 60% of maximum thrust. Solution
Hint Clear Info
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m/s2
Hint Unavailable
60% of maximum thrust = (0.6)(60 kN) = 36 kN = 36,000 N

The crate and helicopter are connected with an inextensible cable so they move together and the acceleration of the whole system uses the net force with the total mass of the system of the helicopter plus crate... (Define up as positive)...

Calculate the tension force in the cable connected to the crate when the helicopter takes off. Solution
Hint Clear Info
Incorrect Attempts:
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N
Net Force = (Tension Force) + (Force due to Gravity)
The cable is weighed down by the force due to gravity of the crate. The upward thrust is adding a tension force due to the acceleration of the system of 4.59 m/s2... (Define up as positive)...

Circular Motion

An object travelling at constant velocity on a circular track is continually accelerating. Solution
Objects moving in circles, whether velocity is constant or not, are always accelerating.

Circular Motion, Centripetal Acceleration, Midpoint of the Circle

A 2.0kg mass swings on a 50cm string around in a vertical circle at 5 m/s. Find the tension in the string at the midpoint on one side of the swing. Solution
Hint Clear Info
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N
Hint Unavailable

Circular Motion, Centripetal Acceleration, Bottom of the Circle

A 1kg mass is swinging around on a string in a vertical loop with a 9cm radius, at a constant velocity of 5m/s, find the force of tension in the string at the bottom of the loop. Solution
Hint Clear Info
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N
Force of tension is negative here

Circular Motion, Centripetal Acceleration, Flat Curve

A car with a mass of 1,400 kg drives around a flat curve at 72 km/h. The curve has a radius of 100m.

Draw a free body diagram and determine the magnitude of the force due to centripetal acceleration. Solution
Hint Clear Info
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N
Hint Unavailable

Find the minimum coefficient of static friction required to keep the car's tires from slipping during the turn. Solution
µs =
Hint Clear Info
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Hint Unavailable

Circular Motion, Centripetal Acceleration, Flat Curve, With Friction

A vehicle travels around a circular, unbanked curve at 12 m/s. If the total mass of the vehicle is 500 kg, and if the force of friction that must be present for the tires not to slip is 1000 N, then determine the smallest radius of the circle. Solution
r =
Hint Clear Info
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m
Hint Unavailable
If the tires do not slip, then the centripetal force and the force of friction are equal magnitude (and opposite direction):

Circular Motion, No Friction, Banked Curve

A car with a mass of 1,800 kg drives around a frictionless banked curve with a radius of 120m. The angle of inclination of the banked curve is 12˚ from the horizontal.

Find the speed the car needs to maintain to travel around the curve without sliding up or down the frictionless embankment. Solution
Hint Clear Info
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m/s
Hint Unavailable

Prove that the mass of the vehicle has no effect on the speed required to drive around the curve without slipping. Show your work in your own notes. Solution

Circular Motion, Centripetal Force

Clyde swings a 5.0 kg ball of seaweed around in horizontal circles on the beach. If the center of mass of the seaweed is 1.0m from his hands, and the maximum force that seaweed can withstand before breaking is 85N, then find the maximum rate of revolution in rpm. Solution
Hint Clear Info
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rpm
Hint Unavailable

Circular Motion, No Friction, Vertical Loop (Top)

If the radius of a roller-coaster loop is 30m, find the minimum speed a roller coaster must have in order to complete a vertical loop on a track without stressing the safety rails at the top of the loop, i.e. without coming off the track at the top of the loop. Solution
Hint Clear Info
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m/s
mass cancels

Circular Motion, No Friction, Banked Curve

An engineered highway is being built with a banked curve with a radius of 200m. Find the angle the highway should be banked at for cars to safely drive at 108 km/hr. Solution
θ =
Hint Clear Info
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˚
mass cancels

Flashcards: Kinematics and Forces

The SI unit of mass is:
Kilogram (kg)
The SI unit of length is:
Meter (m)
How many of the following are vector quantities? Speed, distance, time, velocity, acceleration, displacement, distance, and force.
4

Velocity, acceleration, displacement, and force

(note that vectors have direction, whereas scalars do not have direction).
A jogger runs a 10km lap in 1 hour. Are the average velocity and average speed the same?
No. The average velocity is zero because the runner starts and ends in the same place (a lap). The average speed = 10km/1hr = 10km/hr
State the vertical component of velocity of a 10m/s projectile launched at 40˚ to the horizontal.
10sin40˚

(also accept 10cos60˚)
True/False:

Assuming negligible air resistance, a bowling ball and a golf ball dropped from the same height would land at the same time.
True

(Since distance, v1, v2, and acceleration are the same, then time will be the same. Mass does not matter).
True/False:

Neglecting air resistance, the horizontal velocity of projectile motion (vx) is constant.
True.
Can this formula be used for acceleration (non-uniform motion)?

d = v · t
No, this formula is used when velocity is constant, or in other words when there is no acceleration (uniform motion).
Explain how to calculate displacement on a velocity-time graph
Displacement is the area underneath the curve, or function all the way to the x-axis.
Explain why the normal force is not always just:
FN = mg
This (FN = mg) would work for an object sitting on a table for example. But if an applied force (FA) is present with a vertical component, then the normal force will be the net resultant of weight (mg) and the vertical component of FA.
What is weight? Can objects in space be massless?
Weight is the force due to gravity.
Weight = (mass)(gravity)

No, massless is an incorrect term. Objects in space do not experience gravity and are considered weightless, even though they have do have a mass.
State Newton's 1st Law
An object in motion or at rest will remain in that state unless acted upon by a net force.
State Newton's 2nd Law
The acceleration of an object is directly proportional to the net force and inversely proportional to the total mass.
State Newton's 3rd Law
For every action, there is an equal and opposite reaction
Describe what factors the force of static friction depends on
Static friction depends mostly on the coefficient of static friction (µs), which is different for different materials. The force also depends on the normal force (FN)

Fs ≤ (µs)(FN)
For an object moving along a conveyor belt, or an object being transported forward on the floor of a car, describe the direction of the force of friction.
For a stationary object on a moving conveyor belt or car, the force of static friction (Fs) is in the same direction as the movement of the conveyor or car.
Describe why the normal force of an object on an incline plane does not equal the force due to gravity
The normal force opposes the y-component of the force due to gravity, Fg (y).

So, the normal force is equal and opposite to
(m)(g)(cosθ˚)
True/False:

The tension in a pulley is the same along the entire pulley
True.
An object traveling at a constant speed in a circle experiences what force?
Centripetal force

Fc = m·ac
What is translational equlibrium?
When net force equals zero.
For a vehicle in circular motion, what two quantities must be equal for the vehicle to travel at a maximum velocity while not slipping?
The centripetal force (Fc) must equal the force of static friction (Fs).

Fc = Fs
For a vehicle traveling around a banked curve, in what direction is the centripetal acceleration (Ac) directed?
Directed into the center of the radius of curvature, which in other words is like the center of the circle.

Energy, Work, and Momentum

Conservation of Energy: Theory of Potential Energy (PE) and Kinetic Energy (KE)

Describe the total energy of the system in terms of potential energy and kinetic energy, at the top and bottom of each situation.

A ball is released from rest at a height h, above the ground. Solution

A ball is thrown straight up with an initial velocity v. Solution

Use conservation of energy to solve for the final velocity of a ball thrown horizontally, given an initial velocity and height. Solution

Conservation of Energy: Dropped from Rest

A 33kg mass is dropped from rest, 100m above the ground. Calculate the speed of the object at the instant before it hits the ground. Solution
Hint Clear Info
Incorrect Attempts:
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m/s
The 'instant' before the object hits the ground, it has an instantaneous maximum velocity. This question can either be solved with energy or kinematics.

Conservation of Energy: Gravities on Different Planets (PE = mgh)

Planet Earth and planet Zuto are being compared in physics class. The gravity on the smaller, imaginary planet Zuto is Gz = -5.00 m/s2. A mass m on Earth, and a heavier mass 3m on planet Zuto are thrown upwards and reach the same height. Calculate the factor of speed that the Earth object would have to be thrown compared to the speed of the Zuto object. Solution
Earth speed =
Hint Clear Info
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times the Zuto speed
Mass cancels

Ratios of Kinetic Energy

An object is travelling in space with an initial velocity of 25 m/s.

If the kinetic energy is reduced by 25%, find the new speed. Solution
Hint Clear Info
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m/s
Hint Unavailable

If the object slows down to half its initial speed, calculate the integer ratio of the initial kinetic energy to the final kinetic energy. Solution
Hint Clear Info
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Hint Unavailable

Energy: Work on an Incline Plane

An object rolls 100m down a frictionless hill that's inclined 30˚ to the horizontal. If the weight is 120N, find:

The work due to gravity. Enter your answer as a positive value. Solution
Hint Clear Info
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J
Hint Unavailable

The work due to the normal force. Solution
Hint Clear Info
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J
Hint Unavailable

Energy: Work due to Friction and an Applied Force

A 10.0 N force is applied horizontally to push a 7.0 kg box 5.0 m across a flat surface with friction. Find:

The work due to the applied force. Solution
Hint Clear Info
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J
Hint Unavailable

The work due to friction if the force of friction is 3N. Solution
Hint Clear Info
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J
Hint Unavailable

Conservation of Energy with Potential Energy of Spring Converted to Kinetic Energy

A ball is compressed onto a spring vertically. Given that mass is 2.0 kg, the spring is compressed 1.0 m and the spring constant, k is 200 N/m, calculate the velocity vr of the ball at the moment it was released from the spring. Solution
Hint Clear Info
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m/s
Hint Unavailable

Conservation of Energy with Potential Energy of Spring Converted to Kinetic Energy, with Friction

A new 1.0 kg wind-up toy car developed by NASA is a marvel in engineering because it has near-zero friction in the internal mechanism. Winding the toy car to the max, stretches a spring 5.0 cm. The spring has a spring constant of 100 N/m. The car is released and travels a distance of 900cm over a surface with friction. Determine the maximum velocity of the car, and the coefficient of kinetic friction (µk). Solution
Hint Clear Info
vmax = m/s
µk =
Incorrect Attempts:
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Hint Unavailable

Conservation of Energy: Kinetic Energy converted to Potential Energy of a Spring or Work

A safety mechanism in a train station is built at the end of a track to catch a runaway train - the mechanism basically mimics one extremely gigantic spring. A 90,000kg crash-test train is tested on this spring. Determine the spring constant of the spring, required to stop a train with an initial velocity of 25m/s, with a maximum deceleration of 40m/s2. Solution
k =
Hint Clear Info
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N/m
First calculate the compression of the spring, then calculate the spring constant.

Conservation of Energy (PE, KE) and Centripetal Force

A rollercoaster car with mass m, slides along a frictionless track from a height h, down an incline into a loop with a radius r. Find the minimum height h (in terms of r) the car must start from in order to remain on the track at the top of the loop without falling. (Hint: At the top the loop, FN = 0) Solution
Hint Clear Info
h = r
Incorrect Attempts:
CHECK
Hint Unavailable

Momentum: Inelastic Collision, Objects Stuck Together

At a car derby, two of the cars crash and stick together. Car 'A' had an initial speed of 20 m/s and a mass of 2000kg, while Car 'B' was at rest with a mass of 1000kg. Find the speed of the mass of stuck-together cars after the crash. Solution Video
Hint Clear Info
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m/s
Momentum is conserved: (total initial momentum) = (total final momentum)

Momentum: Inelastic Collision, Same Directions

A 50kg skateboarder pushes a 5kg skateboard out in-front of herself with a velocity of 2.0 m/s [N]. If she runs with a velocity of 3.0 m/s [N] and jumps on the skateboard, then what is the velocity of the skateboarder just after she jumps on the skateboard? Solution Video
Hint Clear Info
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m/s
Hint Unavailable

Momentum: Elastic Explosion

An explosion sends two objects flying outwards in opposite directions from the center of the explosion. The velocities of the objects are considered to be zero before the explosions. The mass of object 'A' is 5m, and the mass of object 'B' is 2m. Find the final velocity of one object in terms of the velocity of the other. Solution
Hint Clear Info
━━ VfB
Incorrect Attempts:
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Both objects start from rest: initial velocity = 0 m/s

Momentum: Inelastic Collision, No Stick

An artillery round with a mass 100g and an initial speed of 300m/s pierces a stationary block of test wood with mass 10kg. The artillery round exits the block of wood with a considerable speed of 90 m/s. Find the speed with which the test block of wood moves. Solution
Hint Clear Info
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m/s
Hint Unavailable

Momentum: Impulse and Average Force

A 1.5kg object gets slugged (impacted) by a rather powerful force at a speed of 50 m/s. If the contact lasts for 0.03s, find the average force exerted by this slugging. Solution
Hint Clear Info
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N
Hint Unavailable

Momentum: Elastic Collision, Combined with Conservation of Energy

A 5 kg ball rolls down a frictionless hill, which is inclined at an angle of 20˚ to the horizontal. The ball starts rolling from the top of the hill - a vertical height of 10 m. The ball collides elastically with a 10kg block resting at the base of the hill causing the block to move at 9.33 m/s.

Find the speed of the ball at the base of the hill before the collision, and the final speed of the ball after the collision. Solution
Hint Clear Info
Vbase of hill = m/s
Vfinal = m/s
Incorrect Attempts:
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To solve, use conservation of, then momentum

Determine the (hypotenuse) distance the ball bounces back up the hill coming to rest. Solution
Hint Clear Info
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m
Hint Unavailable

Momentum in 2-Dimensions: Elastic Collision

A pool ball (ball'A') with a mass m, and an initial horizontal velocity of 5m/s strikes another pool ball with the same mass that is initially at rest (ball 'B'). Ball 'A' strikes ball 'B' and deflects at an angle 30˚ to the horizontal, while ball 'B' deflects at 60˚ to the horizontal below the horizontal. Find the final velocities of both pool balls. Solution
Hint Clear Info
vfA =
vfB =
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m/s
Split the velocities into their 'x' and 'y' components

Momentum in 2-Dimensions: Elastic 'Explosion'

A 1000kg satellite travelling in space at a blistering 300m/s must alter it's path 8˚ from the direction of its travel. In order to change its path slightly, the rocket blasts a shot of gas 2000m/s at an angle perpendicular to the initial plane on which it is travelling. Determine the mass of gas that must be blasted outwards, assuming the mass of the satellite remains constant before and after the blast. Solution
m =
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kg
Use 'x' and 'y' components

Flashcards: ENERGY, WORK, AND MOMENTUM

What is the unit for work?
Joule (J)
Describe how total mechanical energy is conserved as an object falls from rest off a cliff
The total mechanical energy is conserved as the same magnitude at every point during the fall. At each point, the sum of the potential energy plus the kinetic energy is the same magnitude.

ET = PE + KE
= constant
Are the units for kinetic and potential energy the same?
Yes, the unit for each is the Joule (J)
What is the following equation?

U = m·g·h
This is gravitational potential energy
(for objects near the Earth's surface)
A rollercoaster moving with velocity at the top of a loop would have total energy expressed as what equation(s)?
Etotal = mgh + ½mv2
A rollercoaster that has the minimum speed necessary to remain on the track at the top of a loop has what normal force?
The normal force, FN = 0
Is work a scalar or a vector quantity?
Scalar

(the direction does not matter)
State the law of conservation of energy
Energy cannot be created or destroyed, only converted from one form into another
How is power calculated and what is the unit of power?
Power equals the change in energy divided by the change in time.

The unit of power is the Watt (W)
A force is exerted 90˚ to a distance. Describe what the work is.
Work = 0

Since F = F·d·cosθ

When there is a 90˚ angle between the force and the distance (cos90˚) = 0 and the work = 0
True/False:

Momentum (p) is conserved for both elastic and inelastic collisions.
True
An explosion is what type of collision?
Elastic
In conservation of momentum equations, does the sign (±) on the velocity matter?
Yes, it is important to define a positive direction and maintain proper positive and negative velocities.
What is the unit for momentum (p)?
Kg·m/s

(or N/s)
How are momentum and impulse related?
Impulse = the change in momentum (∆p)

Another form of momentum (p = mv) is force times time (p = Ft)
When is kinetic energy conserved?
In completely elastic collisions
True/False:

Momentum is conserved in the component directions, i.e. the x-components and y-components of momentum are each conserved
True
What must be equal to zero for momentum to be conserved?
The net external force on the system must be zero

Periodic Wave Motion (SHM)

Simple Harmonic Motion (SHM): Spring

What factors affect the period of a spring: (check all that apply) Solution

Simple Harmonic Motion (SHM): Pendulum

What factors affect the period of a pendulum: (check all that apply) Solution

Simple Harmonic Motion (SHM): Frequency and Period

An object oscillating in simple harmonic motion completes 30 cycles in 2.75s. Determine the frequency f, and period T. Solution
Hint Clear Info
f = Hz
T = s
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Hint Unavailable

Simple Harmonic Motion (SHM): Springs

A spring with a 100N/m spring constant is loaded with a 3kg mass and the period is measured. Then another unknown mass is added to the 3kg mass and the period is measured to be 1.0 second longer. Determine the unknown mass. Solution
m =
Hint Clear Info
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kg
Hint Unavailable
Spring before Spring after, (let x represent the added mass to solve for x):

Simple Harmonic Motion (SHM): Period (T) and Angular Frequency (ω)

A simple pendulum has a period of 2.0s and an initial displacement of 0.04m. At a later time, the amplitude is reduced to 0.03m.

Calculate the length of the pendulum. Solution Video
Hint Clear Info
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m
Hint Unavailable

Calculate the angular velocity, ω. Solution
ω =
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rad/s
Hint Unavailable

Calculate the angular acceleration, α. Solution
α =
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rad/s2
Hint Unavailable

Determine the tangential velocity, vtangential. Solution
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m/s
Hint Unavailable

Find the percent reduction in energy from the initial to the later time. Solution
Hint Clear Info
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%
Hint Unavailable

Simple Harmonic Motion (SHM): amax

A spring is stretched 10cm from its equilibrium position and released. The period T, of the oscillation is 0.75s. Find the:

Maximum acceleration Solution
Hint Clear Info
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m/s2
Hint Unavailable

Displacement over 0.5s Solution
Hint Clear Info
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m
Hint Unavailable

Acceleration units

The following is a correct determination of units for acceleration. Solution

Simple Harmonic Motion (SHM): Amplitude and Displacement at tx

The distance between the points of maximum acceleration on an oscillating object is 54 cm. The time it takes the object to go from the point of maximum acceleration to the nearest point of maximum speed is 0.05 seconds. Determine the amplitude in order to calculate displacement at t = 0.75 seconds. Solution
Hint Clear Info
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m
Hint Unavailable

Simple Harmonic Motion (SHM): Springs, Spring Constant, and Angular Frequency

A giant spring supports a 2000 kg mass and oscillates at a frequency of 1 Hz. Find the spring constant of this giant spring. Solution
k =
Hint Clear Info
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N/m
Hint Unavailable

Simple Harmonic Motion (SHM)

A 1500 kg car is distributed evenly over 4 identical springs (one at each wheel). If the average displacement of each spring is 10cm, determine the frequency. Solution
f =
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Hz
Hint Unavailable
First determine the spring constant (k) for each spring. The mass on each spring is 1500kg/4 = 375kg Then, calculate the frequency with the equation:

Flashcards: Simple Harmonic Motion (SHM)

Does mass affect the period (T), or frequency (f) of a pendulum?
No

The period of a pendulum only depends on the length of the pendulum and gravity
What are the units of spring constant?

Hint:
F = -k·x
N/m
What is the difference between displacement and amplitude in the periodic motion of a pendulum or spring?
Amplitude is a constant referring to the maximum displacement of a particular harmonic event. Displacement is a changing quantity based on the location of the spring or pendulum at a certain instant in time.
What is angular frequency (ω) and what is the unit?
The speed of rotation.

The unit is rad/s
What is the unit of angular acceleration (α)?
rad/s2

Radians per second squared

(in some cases this can convert to m/s2 when radians don't count)
Why does Hooke's law have a negative sign?

F = -k·x
The negative sign indicates that the spring force (Fs) is a restoring force directed back towards the original equilibrium position.
What is the difference between the spring equation for kinetic and potential energy?
The spring constant (k) is used in place of mass in the equation for potential energy (U)
Describe the equation used in SHM:
This equation is for springs. The total energy in SHM is conserved. (Conservation of energy of pendulums uses a lightly different equation, where mgh is used for potential energy)
At what point is the maximum velocity located in the SHM of a spring or pendulum?
At the equilibrium position.
At what point is the maximum acceleration or the minimum velocity located in the SHM of a spring or pendulum?
At the points of maximum displacement (the amplitude).

Gravitational, Electric, and Magnetic Fields

Gravitation: Units Intro

The Mega or M symbol is equivalent to Solution
Mega (1.0 × 106) is the next factor of 1,000 greater than kilo (1.0 × 103).

Mega = 1,000,000

kilo = 1,000

Gravitational Potential Energy

The two equations for gravitational potential energy are interchangeable at all altitudes. Solution
U = mgh is an approximation that can be used only near the surface of the Earth.

For high Earth altitudes and in space, the equation must be used.

Centripetal Force, Fc

An object thrown straight up into the air experiences a centripetal force around the Earth. Solution
The object only has Fc when the it is rotating in an orbit, tangential to the Fc. Since an object thrown straight up is not moving tangential to the Earth, then it does not have a centripetal force.

Forces

The centripetal and gravitational forces are equal in magnitude for an object in constant orbit. Solution
Furthermore, this gives (derives) the equation for orbital velocity:

Gravitational Constant, G

The gravitational constant, G is equal in all parts of the universe. Solution G = 6.67 × 10-11 Nm2/kg2
The gravitational constant is the same anywhere in the universe. It is used to convert units of mass and distance to a force.

Gravitation Equations

Which of the following is the formula used for determining the force of gravity, Fg? Solution
Many people confuse the force of gravity with the estimation of gravity at the Earth's surface, g (-9.81 m/s2).

The force of gravity (Fg) is in units of Newtons (N).

Fg depends on two masses (M1, m2), the universal gravitational constant (G), and the square of the radial distance (r).

Which of the following is the formula used for determining gravitational field strength, g? Solution
We know the gravitational field strength near the Earth's surface to be -9.81 m/s2. The units of gravitational field strength are m/s, ms-1 or Nkg-1.

Which of the following is the formula used for determining gravitational potential, V? Solution
Note: Gravitational Potential (V) is equivalent to Potential Energy (U) per Unit Mass: Energy/Mass.

Which of the following is the formula used for determining gravitational potential energy, U? Solution
U = V × mobject

Note that at or near the Earth's surface we use instead: U = mgh

Gravitation: Kepler's Laws

Which of the following is Kepler's first law? Solution
Most people think the orbit is a perfect circle, but this is not the case. Extreme examples of elliptical orbits can be observed in the orbit shape of comets.

Kepler's second law means that a planet moves faster when it's closer to the Sun. Solution
Kepler's second law: A line joining a planet and the Sun sweeps out equal areas during equal intervals of time. Since the orbit is elliptical, the speed of the planet changes when it is in different parts of its orbit.

Derive Kepler's Third Law. Solution
Set the force of gravity (Fg) = centripetal force (Fc): Write an equation for the speed of a circle (approximation: Substitute this velocity (v) into equation ① Kepler's third law: The square of the orbital period of a planet is directly proportional to the cube of the semi-major axis of its orbit.

Gravitation: Radius and Escape Velocity

Increasing the radius of a planet, would decrease the escape velocity. Solution
Increasing 'r' will decrease vesc

Gravitation: vescape

Which of the following would double the escape velocity required to escape a planet's orbit? Solution
Note that the only mass in the equation is for the central gravitational body. The mass of the projected object is irrelevant to orbital velocity.
We pull out the square root of 4 as 2.

(Or to double the escape velocity, we could also decrease the radius by a factor of four.)

Gravitation: vescape

A rocket ship must have a velocity greater than the 'escape velocity' of a planet in order to overcome the planet's gravity. If a new rocket ship has a maximum velocity of 1.0 × 104m/s, determine which of the following planets the rocket could not escape and would get stuck on, and state the escape velocity of that planet. (G = 6.67 × 10-11 Nm2/kg2) Solution
Planet NameMass (kg)Radius (m)
Mars6.42 × 10233.39 × 106
Earth5.97 × 10246.38 × 106
Moon (of Earth)7.35 × 10221.74 × 106
Zygote4.35 × 10256.12 × 107
vescape =
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m/s
Hint Unavailable
Compare maximum mass/radius ratio of a planet that the rocket can leave and escape. Can escape when planet's M/R ratio is less than 7.493 × 1017.

The rocket ship cannot leave Earth because the escape velocity for Earth is 11,155 m/s, which is higher than 1.0 × 104 m/s.

Force of Gravity

A very skilled soccer player has managed to balance two identical 435 g soccer balls with an 11 cm radius, on top of one another. Determine the force of gravity of one ball on the other. (G = 6.67 × 10-11 Nm2/kg2) Solution
Hint Clear Info
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N
Hint Unavailable
Make sure to use 'r' (separation distance) between the centers of masses of the balls:

The separation distance of the centers of mass equals 2(0.11m) = 0.22m

Gravitational: Force, Potential, and Potential Energy

Gravitational potential can be calculated using which of the following equivalent methods? Solution
That's it!

Gravitational Field Strength

Determine the gravitational field strength of a 2.0 × 105 kg space station located 200 km above the surface of the earth. (Given: RadiusEarth = 6.4 × 106 m, G = 6.67 × 10-11 Nm2/kg2, MassEarth = 5.98 × 1024 kg) Solution
Hint Clear Info
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N/kg
Hint Unavailable
The mass used is always the central body, in this case it's the Earth.

Mass of the object in orbit is irrelevant in determining gravitational field strength.
200km = 200 × 103 m
Note the units of 'g' can also be stated as (N/kg).

Gravitational Potential

Rounding the distance between the center of masses of the Sun and Earth gives 1.496 × 1011 m. If a 1kg meteoroid is located some distance between the Sun and the Earth, determine the distance from Earth that this meteoroid would experience a net gravitational potential, V equal to zero. (Given: MassEarth = 5.98 × 1024 kg, MassSun = 2.0 × 1030 kg) Solution
Hint Clear Info
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m
Hint Unavailable
V at the meteoroid equals zero when VSun = VEarth.
Let d be the distance from the Sun to the Earth.
Let x be the distance from the meteoroid to the Earth.
So d - x is the distance from the Sun to the meteoroid. Let

Gravitational Potential Energy

Determine the magnitude of the percent change in gravitational potential energy when a 2000kg satellite is launched from the Earth's surface to geosynchronous orbit 36,000km above the Earth's surface. (Given: G = 6.67 × 10-11 Nm2/kg2, MassEarth = 5.98 × 1024 kg) Solution
Hint Clear Info
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%
Hint Unavailable

Theory: Kinetic Energy and Radius

A satellite in high Earth orbit has altered its orbit and is slowly drifting towards Earth. As the orbital radius of the satellite decreases, the kinetic energy increases. Solution
As the satellite moves closer to the center of mass of the Earth, the radial distance (r) gets smaller, and the force of gravity (Fg) gets stronger.

The stronger force accelerates the satellite towards Earth, so velocity (v) increases.

Therefore kinetic energy increases because:

Kepler's Third Law and Semi-Major Axis of an Elliptical Orbit

Comet 'X' maintains an elliptical orbit around Planet 'Z' located at a foci with a mass of 2.03 × 1026 kg. If the farthest distance between the Comet and the Planet is 90,000km determine the shortest distance between them. (Given: G = 6.67 × 10-11 Nm2/kg2) Solution
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km
Hint Unavailable

Schwarzschild Radius

The Schwarzschild radius is the radius of an object so dense that the escape velocity of this object would equal the speed of light. This is common of black holes. Determine the Schwarzschild radius for a black hole with the mass of the Earth. (Given: MassEarth = 5.98 × 1024 kg, G = 6.67 × 10-11 Nm2/kg2, c = 3.0 × 108 m/s) Solution
r =
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m
Hint Unavailable

Conservation of Gravitational Potential Energy

A 100g meteoroid is travelling directly towards Earth at 1,000m/s. If the meteoroid is 1.0 × 1010 m from the surface of the Earth, calculate an estimation of the speed of impact of the meteoroid at the Earth's surface. (Given: G = 6.67 × 10-11 Nm2/kg2, MassEarth = 5.98 × 1024 kg, RadiusEarth = 6.38 × 106 m) Solution
Hint Clear Info
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m/s
Hint Unavailable
Conservation of Energy

Orbit Velocity

Derive the equation for orbit velocity from conservation of energy. Solution

Orbit Velocity

A 1000kg GPS satellite has been designed for medium Earth orbit between 2,000 and 35,000km above the surface of the Earth. The maximum velocity of the satellite is 3000m/s. If the minimum gravitational field strength that satellite can have is 1.2 N/kg, determine if the satellite can make it to medium Earth orbit, hence calculate the height. Solution
Hint Clear Info
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km
Hint Unavailable
The satellite will not make it high enough to medium Earth orbit.

Orbit Velocity

A satellite orbiting the Earth with a speed of 0.75km/s. Given the radius of the Earth is 6.38 × 106 m, find the hight above the earth. (Givens: MassEarth = 5.98 × 1024 kg, G = 6.67 × 10-11 Nm2/kg2) Solution
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m
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Electric Intro

The mu or micro sign, µ is equivalent to Solution
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milli (m) is 1.0 × 10-3

micro (µ) is 1.0 × 10-6

(See that these are different by a factor of 103 or 1,000)

Electric Force

Changing the separation distance of two 10µC point charges by a factor of 3/4 will affect the electric force by what factor? Solution
Sub the 3/4 into the equation. Notice that it gets squared in the denominator. Then, the reciprocal (flipped form) is factored out:

Electric Force

Determine the electric force between the nucleus of a hydrogen atom and its valence electron if the separation distance is 1.07 × 10-14 m. (Given: k = 8.99 × 109 Nm2/C2, qe- = 1.6 × 10-19 C, qp+ = 1.6 × 10-19 C) Solution
Hint Clear Info
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N
Hint Unavailable
The charge on a proton or electron is ±1.6 × 10-19 C

Electric Charges

A positive test charge will move in which direction when placed 1.0 m [N 40˚ W] from a stationary 0.58 µC charge? Solution
The positive test charge will move towards the stationary -0.58µC charge.

So if the charge is placed [N 40˚ W] then it will move towards directly (parallel) in the opposite, [S 40˚ E] direction.

Electric Potential Energy

Determine the change in electric potential energy when a 2.5 µC charge and a 1.5 mC start 1.0 m apart, and are moved to within 0.25 m away. Solution
Hint Clear Info
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J
Hint Unavailable

Separation Distance and Energy

The magnitude of the Total Energy between two charges is always lower than the magnitudes of the individual, Kinetic and Potential Energies. Solution

Net Electrostatic Force

A -6µC charge is placed between two stationary charges in the diagram below. Determine the direction the -6µC charge will move. (Given: k = 8.99 × 109 Nm2/C2) Solution
The force to the left is stronger. Therefore the -6µC charge will move to the left.

A +1C test charge is placed at point 'B'. Determine the net electrostatic force of the stationary charges 'A' 'C' and 'D' on point 'B'. (Given: k = 8.99 × 109 Nm2/C2) Solution
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N
Hint Unavailable
Determine the directions the charges will push qB.
FA push right, FC pull right, FD push left.

Electric Fields

The S.I. units of electric field are: Solution
(Also acceptable as V/m)

Electric Field and Electric Potential

Electric potential (V) is a scalar, and electric field (E) is a vector. Solution
Vectors depend on direction, while scalars do not.

Increasing the separation distance of two charged plates by a factor of 1.5, and decreasing the electric field by one third would not change the magnitude of electric potential. Solution

Electric Field

A proton is accelerated 4.5 × 108 m/s2 in an electric field. Given mp = 1.67 × 10-27 kg, and qp = +1.6 × 10-19 C, calculate the electric field. Solution
Hint Clear Info
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N/C
Hint Unavailable
Remember the equation, electric field equals force over charge,

The electric potential energy of a proton in a different scenario is 2.3 × 10-18 J. Calculate the electric potential. Solution
Hint Clear Info
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V
Hint Unavailable
Remember electric potential energy (U),
Remember electric potential (V)

Electric Field

A stationary +30 µC charge is located 44 cm from another stationary -10 µC charge. Determine the magnitude of the electric field at the midpoint between the two charges. Solution
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N/C
Hint Unavailable
Electric field is a vector, so use proper vector addition. The electric field points away from the positive charge, and towards the negative charge. At the midpoint between a +30µC and -10µC charge, the electric field is pointing in the same direction, therefore the absolute value (magnitudes only) of the fields add. E field is a vector.

Energy of a Charge in an Electric Field

If the energy to move a +5 C charge through a 20 V potential difference is equal to the work to move another +2 C charge through an electric field with plates separated by a distance of 40 cm, determine the magnitude of the electric field. Solution
Hint Clear Info
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N/C
Hint Unavailable

Electric Fields due to Point Charges and Plates

An electric field can be generated by a point charge and is uniform at a constant radial distance from the center of this charge. Alternatively, a uniform electric field can be generated by the separation of charged plates. The electric field 20cm from a point charge is equal to the electric field generated by a potential difference of 100V across plates separated by 20cm. Determine the magnitude of the point charge. (Given: k = 8.99 × 109 Nm2/C2) Solution
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C
Hint Unavailable

Electric Force

A +1 C charge is located 1.0m West of a stationary +1 C charge at Point 'B' and another +2 C charge is located 1.0 m South of Point 'B'. Determine the magnitude of the force felt at Point 'B'. Solution
Hint Clear Info
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N
Hint Unavailable
Electric force is a vector quantity so we must use vector addition.

Electric Potential

A 2.0 × 10-6 C charge is placed at point 'A' 40 cm from a -1.0 × 10-6 C charge at point 'B'. Determine the electric potential at point 'P' 30 cm perpendicularly above point 'B'. (Given: k = 8.99 × 109 Nm2/C2) Solution
Hint Clear Info
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kV
Hint Unavailable
Electric potential (V) is a scalar quantity, so we can simply add and subtract without vector addition.

Make sure to find and use the hypotenuse distance between 'AP' ... = 0.5m

Electric Potential Energy is Conserved

Determine the electric potential necessary to accelerate an electron to the speed of light, 3.0 × 108 m/s. (Given: qe- = 1.6 × 10-19 C, me- = 9.1 × 10-31 kg) Solution
Hint Clear Info
× 10
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V
Energy is conserved, think about which two equations to set equal.

A -2.0 × 10-6 C charge with a mass of 1.0 × 10-8 kg is located 2.0 m from a stationary +1.0 × 10-6 C charge. If the negative charge accelerates directly towards the central charge, determine the final velocity of the negative charge. (k = 8.99 × 109 Nm2/C2) Solution
Hint Clear Info
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m/s
Energy is conserved, think about which two equations to set equal.

Conventional Current

Conventional current is loosely defined as the flow of positive charges. Solution
While it is the delocalized (free) electrons in a metal that carries a current, by convention the flow of positive charges in the opposite direction is used.

Magnetic Field Units: Tesla

The Tesla unit is equivalent to which S.I. units? Solution

Magnetic Fields: Intro

Select the false statement regarding magnetic field lines. Solution
Although light is an electro-magnetic wave, the magnetic component of light is not to be confused with magnetic field lines.

Magnetic Fields: Grip Rule

The Right Hand Grip Rule, for the flow of charges in a current-carrying wire, points the thumb in the direction of: Solution
The right hand grip rule is used for the flow of positive charges (conventional current) in a current carrying wire.

The fingers point in the circular direction of the magnetic field.

If the conventional current in a current-carrying wire is directed into the page, at a location above the wire, the magnetic field will point in what direction? Solution
Conventional current is the flow of positive charges, so use the right hand grip rule:
The thumb points in the same direction as current, and the fingers indicate the direction of the magnetic field.

Point the thumb into the page, and notice the fingers wrap around in a clockwise direction. Above the wire, the magnetic field will point to the right.

The Left Hand Rule

The Left Hand Rule points the thumb in the direction of force, the index finger in the direction of magnetic field, and the second finger in the direction of positive charges. Solution
Note that the Right Hand Rule would be used for the direction of movement of a negative charge.

The Right Hand Rule

The Right Hand Rule points the thumb in the direction of force, the index finger in the direction of magnetic field, and the second finger in the direction of negative charges (electrons). Solution
The Right Hand Rule would be used for the direction of movement of a negative charge.

(Note that this is not the same as the Right Hand Grip Rule).

Charges Moving in a Magnetic Field

In which of the following examples is the force directed into the page? Solution
Force is out of the page (use left hand rule for negative charges)

III) Force is downwards (use right hand rule for negative charges)

IV) Force is upwards (use right hand rule for negative charges)

Determine the direction of the force, if any, on the positive charge (+q) in the uniform magnetic field below. Solution
Force equals zero if the angle between charge velocity (v) and magnetic field (B) is zero.

Draw the path of the negative charge (-q) in the uniform magnetic field below. Solution

The maximum force on a current-carrying wire in a magnetic field is produced when: Solution
As theta increases from 0˚ to 90˚, the value of increases. Therefore the maximum force is experienced when the angle between the wire and magnetic field is 90˚.

Magnetic Force on a Current-Carrying Wire

A current-carrying wire in a uniform magnetic field generates a force. The direction of this force can be reversed by reversing the direction of the current or the magnetic field. Solution
The uniform magnetic field (B) is represented with the large arrows below.

Two current-carrying wires in different directions are represented by the gray circles.

You can see the resulting forces are shown in blue.

Changing the direction of the current in a uniform magnetic field changes the direction of the force (in blue) changes.

Charges Moving in a Magnetic Field: Mass Spectrometer

Which of the following would decrease the radius of curvature of a charge moving through a uniform magnetic field in a mass spectrometer? Solution
Things that (directly) increase radius of curvature: m
- Increasing mass → increases the radius
- Decreasing mass → decreases the radius


Things that (inversely) decrease radius of curvature: q, B
- Increasing charge → decreases the radius
- Decreasing charge → increases the radius
- Increasing magnetic field → decreases the radius
- Decreasing charge → increases the radius

Solenoid

A solenoid with an iron core is an electromagnet in which the strength is directly proportional to the amount of current. Solution
An electromagnet is created by an electric field (B).

For a solenoid with n turns, i current, and L length: As you can see, the magnitude of the magnetic field (B) is directly proportional to current (i).

Determining Radius of Curvature of a Charge Moving in a Magnetic Field

A 1.67 × 10-27kg proton is accelerated from rest through a potential difference of 12V. The charge was initially moving from the top of the page to the bottom of the page. The proton exits the electric field and enters a uniform 10mT magnetic field directed out of the page.

Determine the speed of the proton as it exits the electric field. (Given: q = 1.602 × 10-19C) Solution
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m/s
Hint Unavailable
The energy is conserved as electric potential energy (U) is converted into kinetic energy (KE).

Determine the radius of curvature of the charge in the magnetic field. Solution
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m
Hint Unavailable
The magnetic force (FB) balances the centripetal force (FC).

Determine whether the charge will rotate clockwise or counterclockwise in the magnetic field. [1] Solution
Hint Clear Info
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Hint Unavailable
Use the left hand rule for positive charges. The index finger points out of the page, and the second finger points down. The force is directed to the left. This will cause the charge to rotate clockwise.

Magnetic Field in a Wire Loop

A wire loop with a 40 cm radius is carrying a 20 A (conventional) current counterclockwise. Determine the maximum magnitude of the magnetic field and the direction. (Given: µ0 = 4 × 10-7 Tm/A) Solution
Using the right hand grip rule, the magnetic field points out of the page at the center of the loop.

Magnetic Field from Magnetic Poles

A magnetic field generated by North and South poles is always directed from North to South.

Force on a Current-Carrying Wire

Determine the current necessary to levitate a 10 g, 10 cm wire set perpendicular to a 740 mT magnetic field. Solution
Hint Clear Info
Incorrect Attempts:
CHECK
A
Hint Unavailable
Think what levitation is. Levitation is the point where the magnetic force is equal and opposite to the force due to gravity:

Force on a Current-Carrying Wire

A current carrying wire is placed in a magnetic field. Determine the direction of force. Solution
Hint Clear Info
Incorrect Attempts:
CHECK
Hint Unavailable
Conventional current points into the page. Magnetic field is always directed from N to S, which in this case is to the left. Using the left hand rule for conventional current, the force is directed upwards.

Flashcards: Gravity, Electric, and Magnetic Fields

Describe why potential energy (U = mgh) cannot be used at any altitude
The potential energy equation (mgh) is an approximation used at/near the surface of the Earth. This is because the gravitational field strength, g (9.81 m/s2) is based on the radial distance of the Earth. In space use:
For an object in constant orbit, what two forces must be equal?
Centripetal force (Fc) and gravitational force (Fg)
Can the universal gravitational constant
G = 6.67 × 10-11 Nm2/kg2
be used for calculations anywhere in the universe, or just on Earth?
Anywhere in the universe.
What is the official term for gravity?
Gravitational field strength
What is the main difference between the force of gravity and gravitational field strength?
The force of gravity (Fg) depends on the mass of the object in orbit, while the gravitational field strength (g) does not depend on the mass of the object in orbit—only the mass of the larger body, like a planet or star or something.
Explain why in space, weight, or the force of gravity (Fg) does not equal mass times the gravitational field strength (g)
Because gravity (g) is not the same in space because it depends on the distance to the center of mass of the larger gravitational body. Instead use:

How does gravitational potential (V) related to gravitational potential energy (U)?
Gravitational potential (V) is the gravitational potential energy (U) per unit of mass of the object in orbit

V = U ÷ m
What is Kepler's First Law?
Basically that the orbit of every planet is an ellipse with the Sun at one of the two foci.
What is Kepler's Second Law?
A line joining a planet and the Sun sweeps out equal areas during equal intervals of time. Since the orbit is elliptical, the speed of the planet changes when it is in different parts of its orbit. Basically that a planet moves faster when it's closer to the Sun.
What is Kepler's Third Law?
The square of the orbital period (T) of a planet is directly proportional to the cube of the semi-major axis (r) of its orbit.
Does the escape velocity depend on the mass of an object (like a spaceship)?
Surprisingly no. The escape velocity only depends on the gravitational constant (G), the mass of the planetary body (M) and the radial distance (r) to the center of mass of the planetary body.

What is a geosynchronous orbit (GSO)?
Any orbit around the Earth that matches the rotation of the Earth. The orbital period is the same as the time for the Earth to rotate once. This results in objects that appear to have a fixed position over the Earth at all times.
What is a Schwarzschild radius?
This is the radius of mass that would result in the escape velocity (vesc) equivalent to the speed of light. A mass that light cannot escape from is a black hole. So it's the radius that would make a black hole, for a certain mass.
Is a test charge always considered positive or negative?
Positive
True/False:

The magnitude of electric force does not depend on whether the charges are positive or negative.
True. The magnitude of force does not depend on whether the charges attract or repel.

If the radial distance (r) is halved, by what factor will the electric force (F) increase?
4
A test charge is placed to the West of a stationary negative charge. In what direction will the test charge move?
East

A test charge is positive and will move towards the stationary negative charge.
What is the conventional direction for electric field lines around positive and negative charges?
Electric field lines always point outwards from positive charges and inwards towards negative charges.
What is the unit of electric potential (V)?
Volt (V)
What is the unit of charge (q)?
Coulomb (C)
What is the unit of electric field (E)?
Newton/Coulomb (N/C)

(Volt/meter, V/m)
What is potential difference (V)?
Potential difference (in Volts) is the energy (Joules) per charge (Coulomb) at a load like a resistor or lightbulb.
What are the quantities in the given formula?

U = q·V
U: Electric potential energy (Joules)

q: Charge (Coulombs)

V: Potential difference (Volts)
What are the quantities in the given formula?

V = E·d
V: Potential difference (Volts)

E: Electric field (N/C)

d: Distance (meters)
Is electric field a vector or scalar quantity?
Vector

Electric field is a vector because it depends on direction

(note that electric potential is a scalar)
If a charge (q) is moved a certain distance (d) in a uniform electric field (E), describe a situation where the work (U) on the charge is equal to zero.
U = q·E·d

Work is equal to zero when the
Describe how a uniform electric field (E) is typically created.
A uniform electric field is formed between two oppositely charged parallel plates. The uniformity of the electric field is displayed with the parallel electric field lines from the positive to the negative plate.
What is the unit of magnetic field (B)?
Tesla (T)
What is current?
Current is the flow of charges over a certain time interval
Explain how magnetic field lines are generally drawn in a diagram
Basically the magnitude of the magnetic field (B) is indicated by the density of the field lines. Although field lines can be either parallel or curved, the field lines can never cross.
Describe what the thumb and fingers represent in the left hand rule
The thumb is the force (F), the index finger is the magnetic field (B), and the second finger is the direction of movement of positive charge (q)
Describe what the thumb and fingers represent in the right hand grip rule
The thumb is the flow direction of positive charge (q), and the fingers curl in the direction of the circular magnetic field (B)
For a charge (q) moving in a uniform magnetic field (B), describe what could make the magnetic force (FB) equal to zero
If the charge moves parallel (0˚) to the field lines.
Do charges (q) only move in straight lines in a uniform magnetic field (B)?
No, charges can move in circular or spiral paths, for example when a charge is moving in the magnetic field of a mass spectrometer
What is an electromagnet?
When a conductive material like some metals is placed in the core of a coil of wire called a solenoid, the magnetic field (B) accumulates in the material and creates a magnet when current flows through the wire coil.
What is a solenoid?
A solenoid is any coiled wire or conductive material in the general shape of a cylinder, which looks like a slinky or something
What happens to the magnetic force (FB) when a charge does not move?
FB = 0

There is only a magnetic force when the charge has some velocity.

(F = q·v·B·sinθ˚)
Imagine the maximum magnitude of the magnetic field (B) around a straight wire. Now wrap that wire into a loop. Is the magnitude of the magnetic field (B) at the center of the loop higher or lower than the original field strength?
The magnetic field (B) at the center of the loop is higher than any point along a straight wire.
Describe the direction of magnetic field (B) between two opposite (north and south) poles of a magnet
The magnetic field (B) always points from the north to the south pole.

Light, Waves, and Optics

Light Sources

Waves from light sources that are coherent have the same frequency and are in phase with each other. Solution
This is what coherent means -- that the light sources have the same frequency and are in phase with each other. This is significant when it comes to constructive and destructive interference of waves.

Light Speeds

Different colors of light like red, violet, or green, have different speeds (v). Solution Video
The speed doesn't change, but wavelength and frequency do change.

Principle of Superposition (Review)

For total destructive interference to occur between two waves, what must be the same? Solution Video
  1. Amplitude
  2. Frequency
  3. Wavelength
  4. Path Difference Multiple of ½λ
Amplitude must be the same so that total destructive interference occurs.

Frequency and wavelength must be the same so that the crests and troughs can align.

The path difference must be n multiple of ±(n)½λ.

Interference of Two Sources

The following diagram depicts two coherent sources, where solid lines represent wavefront crests and dotted lines indicate troughs. At which point(s) does destructive interference occur? Solution Video
Destructive interference occurs where a crest overlaps a trough.

(Constructive interference occurs where two crests overlap, or where two troughs overlap).

Diffraction

What is diffraction? [2] Solution Video
Hint Clear Info
Incorrect Attempts:
CHECK
Hint Unavailable
Diffraction is the curvature of a wavefront (of any wave like light, sound, water) that occurs when the wave passes through a narrow opening, or aperture.

The diffraction pattern looks like 'ripples in a pond' and can create interference patterns if more than one source is present.

Young's Double Slit Experiment

Thomas Young's experiment involved a monochromatic light source, projected through a single slit, then projected through a double slit.

Young's Double Slit Experiment

Young used slits that act as new light sources according to Huygen's principle. Solution Video
Huygen's principle suggests that a wavefront is capable of acting as a 'source' for new waves.

As the light passes through a narrow opening, it diffracts in wave-like patterns. Each narrow opening, or slit is considered as a light 'source'.

The main significance of Young's slit experiment is that: Solution
This is a bit tricky because all of these factors area a little bit significant.

However, there is one thing is more significant than the rest. Light has properties of particles (Einstein and photoelectric effect of photons) and waves.


Young's experiment is the experiment that proves light has properties of waves!

Calculate the path difference pd, in the two waves originating from double slits if the angle from the horizontal is 30˚ and the distance, d between the slits is 0.5 mm. Solution Video
pd =
Hint Clear Info
Incorrect Attempts:
CHECK
mm
Hint Unavailable
Distance (d) and path difference (pd) are same units.
They don't need to be in any particular unit, as long as they are the same.

Young's Double Slit

The following diagram just shows two out of the many waves from diffraction in a double slit experiment. In reality, what will actually occur on a screen? Solution
Light waves with a path difference equal to an integer number of wavelengths (n wavelengths) will constructively interfere and create bright fringes on the screen.

In the example given, the path difference is equal to 1 wavelength (1 λ).

The following path differences will also produce bright fringes: 0 λ, 1 λ, 2 λ, 3 λ, 4 λ, ...

Calculations with Young's Double Slit

Fringes are only bright regions where constructive interference occurs. Solution Video
Fringes are not only bright regions.

Dark fringes appear where destructive interference occurs between two waves that are a multiple of ½λ apart in phase (path).

Dark fringes are between the bright fringes on the screen.

Monochromatic light originates from two slits with a separation distance of 0.2 mm. If two adjacent (1st order) bright fringes are 15˚ apart, determine the wavelength of the wave. Solution Video
λ =
Hint Clear Info
Incorrect Attempts:
CHECK
mm
Hint Unavailable
n (or sometimes m) is the number of spaces between fringes:

"adjacent (1st order) bright fringes" means n = 1
d = 0.2 mm

Determine which of the following equations could be used for dark fringes (total destructive interference), where n is the integer number of wavelengths (1, 2, 3...), Solution Video
Destructive interference occurs when the path difference is a multiple of ½λ.

Double Slit Small Angle Approximation

For light passing between two slits that are close together, y represents the distance from the central bright fringe to other fringes on a screen. The horizontal distance from the double slits to the screen is represented by x.

For very small angles, the following relationship is true. Solution Video
This approximation is true for small angles. For example:

tan(10˚) = 0.176
sin(10˚) = 0.174

These values are close enough to say tan(z˚) ≈ sin(z˚)

Assuming a small angle and given the relationship above, with the diagram and equation below, which of the following formulas is correct? (Use the small angle approximation and then use the information in the diagram to make an equation, then isolate for wavelength) Solution

d is the distance between the slits
x or D is the distance from the slits to the screen
m or n is order, the number of spaces between fringes
y is the distance between fringes on the screen.
(Interchangeable: n is m, x is D).

Hey, it's the small angle approximation!

(remember, n is the number spaces between the bright fringes.)

A monochromatic light source shines between two thin slits spread 0.1 mm apart, onto a screen 10 cm from the slits. The central, brightest fringe is 15cm from an adjacent bright fringe. The angle between the light waves is very small. Determine the wavelength of the light, in centimeters. Solution
λ =
Hint Clear Info
Incorrect Attempts:
CHECK
cm
Hint Unavailable
Use the small angle approximation
See how some of the units of distance are different, so convert all units to the same thing:
d = 0.1 mm = 0.01 cm
x = 10 cm
y = 15 cm
Adjacent bright fringes means n = 1 (Also accept answer: 0.15 mm)

Double Slit Small Angle Approximation

The following equation only works for small angles between a fringe and the central maximum. Solution
Because it is based on the small angle approximation where sin ≈ tan

Destructive Interference

It is still possible to hear sound when destructive interference affects sound waves. Solution
Destructive interference does not have to be total destructive interference.

If the path difference is not exactly , then there will be some destructive interference but it will not be complete and some sound will still be heard.

Applications of Two Wave Sources

Similar to a double slit experiment, 250 Hz tuning forks emit sound waves from two sources spaced 2.0 m apart. At two places 3.5 m horizontally away from the sources, there is no sound heard. If the speed of sound in air at sea level is 340 m/s, determine the distance between the adjacent (1st order) quiet spots. Solution
Hint Clear Info
Incorrect Attempts:
CHECK
m
Hint Unavailable
The distance between the sources, d = 2.0m
The horizontal distance between the source and the interference pattern, x = 3.5m
This distance between adjacent quiet spots is the separation distance like on a screen, y

Adjacent spots means n = 1

Sub f and v for wavelength:

Single Slit

Modern experiments of single slit diffraction are still based on Huygen's principle of wavefronts, but use parallel light rays rather than a non-uniform light source (like a candle or the Sun). Solution
Huygen's principle suggests that a wavefront is capable of acting as a 'source' for new waves. As the light passes through a narrow opening, it diffracts in wave-like patterns. Each narrow opening, or slit is considered as a light 'source'.

The light rays must be parallel to make calculations more accurate. This means controllable light sources (like lasers) are used rather than non-uniform sources (like the Sun).

Which of the following formulas is used for constructive interference? Solution

    y   is the distance from the central fringe to the nth order fringe.
    m   is the fringe order number, or spaces between the central and nth fringe, (any non-zero integer).
      is wavelength.
    x   is the distance from the slit to the screen.
    w   is the width of the slit.
Waves that destructively interfere are out of phase by an whole number multiple of +½λ or -½λ.
Waves that constructively interfere are out of phase by a whole number multiple of +λ or -λ.
The other formula presented here is used for destructive interference:

A wave passes through a single slit that is 0.2 mm wide and 3 cm from a screen. If the third order bright fringe is measured 2.1 cm from the central bright fringe, determine the wavelength, in millimeters. Solution
Hint Clear Info
Incorrect Attempts:
CHECK
mm
Hint Unavailable
'Bright fringes' means use constructive interference formula.

Givens:
y = 2.1 cm = 21 mm
m = 3
x = 3 cm = 30 mm
w = 0.2 mm
Find

Diffraction Gratings

Diffraction gratings provide evidence for Huygen's principle. Solution
Huygen's principle suggests that a wavefront is capable of acting as a 'source' for new waves (wavelets).

As the light passes through a narrow opening, it diffracts in wave-like patterns. Each narrow opening, or slit is considered as a light 'source'. Each slit or ridge in a diffraction grating acts as a new source.

The distances between bright fringes from diffraction gratings that have 100's or 1000's of slits are easier to measure on a screen. Solution
A greater number of slits allows for more destructive interference between bright fringes, resulting in bright fringes that are easier to see and tell apart (resolve) from one another (bottom of image).

The diffraction grating behaves like 100's or 1000's of pairs of double slits.
Creative Commons Attribution: © B. Crowell, 2002

Which of the following does not have diffraction gratings? Solution
A prism is actually just refraction of light, rather than diffraction (with gratings).

Calculations with bright fringes created by diffraction gratings use the same formula as double slits:

    n   is the fringe order number, or spaces between the central and nth fringe, (any non-zero integer).
      is wavelength.
    d   is the distance between the slits.
      is the angle between the central axis and the wave axis.

Thin Film Interference

Thin films can create rainbow-like shimmer on some surfaces, like oil on water, or a surfactant like soap, on air.

thin film

In thin film interference a phase shift, or path difference occurs when light enters a medium with a lower index of refraction. Solution
The thin film must have a higher index of refraction (n) so the phase shift, or path difference occurs when light enters a medium with a higher index of refraction, for instance from air into oil, or air into soap.

The phase shift only occurs at the when the light goes from air→oil, or air→soap--not when light goes from oil→air or soap→air. Therefore only one of the reflected waves has this path difference.

Thin film interference would not occur without which of the following? Solution
This is required for the different colors to be seen due to the different interference patterns.

In thin film interference, why do different colors (wavelengths) appear from the presence of oil on water? Solution
The reason is that thickness of the film varies. As the light refracts through the film and undergoes total internal reflection, the phase difference depends on the thickness of the film.

Different thicknesses will cause different phase differences causing different wavelengths of light to interfere destructively.

(note that destructive interference does not make colors, instead the colors are observed due to constructive interference).

In thin film interference, some of the light will reflect off the surface of the medium, while the rest of the light gets refracted and internally reflected on the far side of the thin film layer. This creates a phase difference that causes constructive or destructive interference patterns.

If the film is 0.02 mm thin, then what will be the path (phase) difference between the reflected and the refracted wave? Solution
Hint Clear Info
Incorrect Attempts:
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mm
Hint Unavailable
The phase change difference is 2× the width of the thin film... = 0.04 mm

Describe how an antireflective coating could be chosen to reduce certain amounts of light (colors). [1] Solution
Hint Clear Info
Incorrect Attempts:
CHECK
Hint Unavailable
Antireflective properties are based on destructive interference. The thickness of the thin film determines the path difference and the wavelength of light that gets destroyed.

Make a certain width or combinations of widths that can make certain light colors (wavelengths) have an amplitude of zero through destructive interference.

In thin film interference, if the thickness of the thin film was exactly the same everywhere, we would see an even distribution of the same color. Solution
Because the different colors we see are based on the thickness of the thin film.

Thin Film Interference

The equation for destructive interference in thin films is: Solution
m is any integer
λ is wavelength
d is thickness of film
n is index of refraction
While this may look like the equation for destructive interference from previous questions (because of m + ½), this equation is constructive in thin films when one of the waves has a path difference of 180˚, or half a wavelength when reflecting off a higher-n medium on the top and no change on the bottom wave.

The equation for destructive interference in thin films is:

Walking through a parking lot you see a puddle of water that has a layer on it that looks like a rainbow. You know the index (n) of air is 1.0 and oil is 1.5 and you want to find the minimum thickness of the film. You see a nice color of red that has a wavelength of 623 nm. Solution
Hint Clear Info
Incorrect Attempts:
CHECK
nm
Hint Unavailable
This red light is created with constructive interference, so use that equation.
The minimum thickness occurs when m = 0 Therefore the thickness of the film is 103.8 nm, or 1.038 × 10-7 m.

The equation for constructive interference in antireflective coatings is: Solution Video m is any integer
λ is wavelength
d is thickness of film
n is index of refraction
The equations are switched for antireflective coatings because both waves have a path difference of 180˚, or ½ wavelength because both waves are reflecting off a higher-n medium on the top compared to the bottom.

An anti­reflective coating of magnesium fluoride (MgF2) has an index of (n = 1.38) and is used on glass. Antireflective coatings should be ¼ of the wavelength. To reduce a mid-spectrum wavelength of 550nm, determine the minimum thickness of the anti­reflective coating. Solution thin film
Hint Clear Info
Incorrect Attempts:
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nm
Hint Unavailable
Typically with thin films of oil on water, or soap on air, the film has the highest index of refraction (n), so n0 < n1 > n2.

! But in anti­reflective coatings since the index of refraction (n) is higher in each layer of air → coating → glass, n0 < n1 < n2, then we reverse the interference equations:
Destructive (not constructive anymore): Then we must use ¼ of the wavelength for antireflective coatings: Destructive (not constructive anymore): m is any integer (use 0 for the minimum)
λ is wavelength
d is thickness of film
n is index of refraction

Resolving Power using the Rayleigh Criterion

The pupil is the circular aperture in the eye that expands and contracts depending on the level of ambient light. The average pupil ranges in diameter from 3 mm to 9 mm. The Rayleigh criterion is the principle for determining the minimum resolvable detail between two things to be able to tell them apart.


is the angle between the two sources, in radians.
is wavelength.
A is the diameter of the aperture (pupil).


For light of a given wavelength a smaller pupil diameter, A will increase the angle between the light sources. Solution
Small 'A' will increase the angle θ.

If the pupil has a maximum diameter of 9 mm in low light conditions, determine the minimum angle to resolve green light with a 520 nm wavelength. Solution
θ =
Hint Clear Info
× 10
Incorrect Attempts:
CHECK
radians
Hint Unavailable
Make units the same, in nm.
1 nm = 1 × 10-6 mm

Use the information from the previous sections. The highest resolution laptop and phone displays have pixels small enough that they cannot easily be distinguished. For a screen viewing distance of 20 cm, determine the minimum distance between the center of two adjacent pixels. (Use trigonometry and Rayleigh's criterion). Solution
Hint Clear Info
× 10
Incorrect Attempts:
CHECK
cm
Hint Unavailable
Given:
x = 20 cm
= 7.05 × 10-5 radians
Solve for y. (remember to put your calculator into radians).

Explain the relationship between the angle and the separation distance of pixel spacing on the screen that can be resolved by the eye. Solution
For small angles, with constant distance x, as increases, increases, and therefore y increases. tan x graph

Polarization

Sunlight has an infinite amount of 'polarization' orientations. Solution
Sunlight is perfectly un-polarized.

Polarized Light Intensity

Polarizing materials reduce the intensity of the incoming light.

Polarizer in front of computer screen that polarizes light 45˚ (Credit: Rogilbert, Waugsberg, France)

Light with an initial intensity (I0) enters a polarizing material, resulting in what intensity? Solution
Only the first polarizer has the intensity reduced by half, ½ I0. All the next polarizers (2nd, 3rd... ) use the equation I = I0cos2θ.

Light that passes through 3 different polarizers each at 45˚, will have what intensity? Solution
Light that passes through the first polarizer always is ½I0.

Light that passes through the second polarizer has ½I0cos245˚

Light that passes through the third polarizer has:

(also I = I0/2n, where n = 3)

Multiple Polarizations

Light passes through three polarizers rotated at different angles. The first polarizer is vertical, the second is 30˚ from the first, and the third is 45˚ from the second. Calculate the ratio of the light at the end to the incident light (I0). Solution
Hint Clear Info
━━
Incorrect Attempts:
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Hint Unavailable
After the first polarizer: After the second polarizer: After the third polarizer: The ratio of final to initial is (3/16):1, or the ratio of output to incident light in fraction form is...

Polarization

A polarized light source with an intensity of 2 W/m2 is polarized by 30˚. Calculate the intensity after polarization. Solution
I =
Hint Clear Info
Incorrect Attempts:
CHECK
W/m2
Hint Unavailable
Use the following equation for polarized light

Brewster's Angle

Brewster's angle is which two statements? (More than one answer: check all that apply) Solution
For polarized light: The angle of incidence that certain polarized light transmits through a surface with no reflection.

For unpolarized light (like sunlight): The angle of incidence that unpolarized light reflects on a surface and (the reflection) becomes polarized

(Note that the surface must be a dielectric (e.g. glass, not shiny metal).

Brewster's Angle

Calculate Brewster's angle for light from going from air to glass (nair = 1.0, nglass = 1.5). Solution
θ =
Hint Clear Info
Incorrect Attempts:
CHECK
˚
Hint Unavailable
n1 is the initial medium, air

n2 is the second medium, glass.

Polarization

Determine if it is possible to use one polarizer to rotate light by 90˚. [1] Solution
Hint Clear Info
Incorrect Attempts:
CHECK
Hint Unavailable
No it is not possible because the light would have a final intensity (I) of zero.

Polarization

Using two sequential (one after the next) polarizers to rotate light 45˚ each time, would effectively rotate light 90˚. Solution
Through first polarizer: Through second polarizer:

Reminder of Equations and Angle Units

Which of the following equations must use radians? Solution
The Raleigh resolution equation must be in radians. (Fringe, Brewster's, and Polarization are all in degrees).

Flashcards: LIGHT, SOUND, WAVES, OPTICS

How is speed of sound affected by temperature?
Higher temperatures increase the speed of sound
Is the fundamental frequency also known as the first resonant length?
Yes
What is the resonant length of an open air column and of a closed air column?
To determine this, know that open ends have antinodes while closed ends have nodes at them.

...

Open columns = ½λ

Closed columns = ¼λ
Can sound waves constructively and destructively interfere?
Yes
What is intensity and what is the unit of intensity?
Intensity is the power per area.

W/m2
As the source of a frequency approaches an observer, what happens to the observed frequency?
The observed frequency increases (this is the doppler effect).
How does the wavelength relate to resonant length?
Higher resonant lengths have higher wavelengths.
Can sound waves constructively and destructively interfere?
Yes
What theory does Young's slit experiment support?
The theory that light has wavelike properties
What is order number in a slit experiment?
The order is the number of similar fringes apart from the central fringe. For example a third order bright fringe is the third fringe from the central maximum.
For small angles does sinθ˚ = tanθ˚ ?
Yes, this is called the small angle approximation. At small angles, the length of the hypotenuse is very close to the length of one side of the triangle.
Is the speed of light constant in all mediums?
No, the speed of light is only constant in a vacuum where
c = 3.0 × 108 m/s
Describe the polarization of light on the surface of water.
As light reflects off the surface of water, the electric field is entirely polarized in the same direction horizontally.
What causes thin film interference to display different colors?
The small variance in the thickness of the film causes different interference patterns resulting in different visible wavelengths of light constructively and destructively interfering. This results in regions of colors.
What quantity gets reduced as light passes through a polarizer?
Intensity (I)

watts/meter2
What is diffraction?
Diffraction is the creation of many wavelets from a narrow opening that acts as a single source. The resulting wavelets spread out in the shape of an arc.
What conditions are necessary for total destructive interference to occur
Two waves must have the same amplitude, and a phase shift by a factor of ½λ. The waves must also have the same frequency and wavelength.
Does resonance require two objects to be in direct contact?
No. (Resonance is an induced oscillation of an object by a frequency matching the natural frequency of that object.)
What is a standing wave?
The oscillation in a standing wave appears at the antinodes while the nodes of the wave remain at a fixed position on the axis of symmetry of the wave. Nodes are spaced apart by ½λ.
What is a transverse and longitudinal wave?
A transverse wave oscillates (amplitude) perpendicular to the direction of travel.

A longitudinal wave oscillates (amplitude) parallel to the direction of travel.
Two waves with equal amplitude and frequency have a phase shift of 540˚. How will they interfere?
Complete destructive interference.

(Note that if the amplitudes were not the same then the destructive interference would not be complete)
What is Huygen's principle?
Basically that a wavefront is capable of acting as a 'source' for new waves, often at the point of a narrow opening.

Matter-Energy Quantum Physics

Atomic Particles

Determine the correct masses of the subatomic particles below. Solution
Electron
Neutron and Proton
1.7 × 10-27 kg
9.3 × 10-31 kg
A proton and neutron have the same mass.

Electrons are lighter!

Given the correct values below, state the charge on a neutron, proton, and electron. Solution
Neutron
Proton
Electron
+ 1.6 × 10-19 C
- 1.6 × 10-19 C
0.0 C
Protons and electrons have the same magnitude of charge, with opposite signs!

Neutrons are neutral (0.0 C of charge).

Planck's Constant

The units for the Planck Constant (h = 6.63 × 10-34) is/are: Solution
  1. J
  2. kg·ms-1
  3. J·s
  4. eV·s
More precisely, Planck's constant is 6.62606957 × 10−34, but you don't need to know that much detail.

It's not easy to wrap your head around. Basically Planck's constant is the amount of Energy per Frequency for a photon (of light). Yup.

(FYI: another form of Planck's constant is 4.135667516 × 10−15 eV·s)

Substitute the units in the following equation, and isolate for h:

Mass Energy Equivalence and electronVolts

The following unit analysis is correct. Solution
c = speed of light

eV = electron volt = Joules

Quantum Photons

Calculate the energy of a photon with a 500 nm wavelength. (c = 3.0 × 108 m/s) Solution
Hint Clear Info
× 10
Incorrect Attempts:
CHECK
J
Hint Unavailable
500 nm = 500 × 10-9 m

Planck Formula Variations

Which one of the following formulas is wrong? Solution
It should be:

Energy, Joules and Electronvolts

There are 1 × 10-11 J in 500 MeV. (1 eV = 1.6 × 10-19 J) Solution
Check to see if this is true 1 × 10-11 J = 500 MeV...

The 'M' in 500 MeV stands for Mega, which is 106.

1 eV = 1.6 × 10-19 J

Nuclear Units

1.0 u is a measure of mass of a particle in a nucleus. (Fact: the mass of a proton or neutron is 1.66 × 10-27 kg). Solution
The 'u' symbol represents the mass of a nuclear particle (proton and/or neutron).

1.0 u = 1.66 × 10-27 kg

The mass of a proton and mass of a neutron are equal.

1.0 u = 931.5 MeV = 931.5 MeV/c2 Solution
This allows conversion between amu and binding energy.

Mass of proton = 1.007278 u
Mass of neutron = 1.008665 u
Mass of electron = 0.000549 u

E.g.) 12C = 6p + 6n = 6(1.007278) + 6(1.008665) = 12.0956 u = 1.13 × 104 MeV...

Quantum

Calculate the wavelength of photons with 1 eV. (c = 3.0 × 108 m/s, h = 6.63 × 10-34Js, 1 eV = 1.6 × 10-19 J) Solution
λ =
Hint Clear Info
× 10
Incorrect Attempts:
CHECK
m
Hint Unavailable

Quantum

Photons with a total wattage of 10.0 W over a period of 10.0 s have what wavelength? (c = 3.0 × 108 m/s, h = 6.63 × 10-34Js) Solution
λ =
Hint Clear Info
× 10
Incorrect Attempts:
CHECK
m
Hint Unavailable
Calculate the energy from watts

Quantum Levels

For an electron that falls down to a lower energy level, energy is absorbed. Solution
When the electron falls down to a lower level, energy is released proportional to the distance in energy levels, in electronvolts (eV).

Electron Diffraction

Particles like electrons can diffract when passed through either a single or double slit. Solution
Beams or electron particles were directed through single and double slits, and each time, diffraction patterns were observed.

This shows that matter can have wave-like properties!

Louis de Broglie (1924)

Louis de Broglie correctly hypothesized what about matter? Solution
For instance, the diffraction of electrons (particles!) creates fringe patterns with constructive and destructive interference.

This is interesting because it's typically thought waves that can do this, and not particles.

de Broglie

An electron is accelerated across a 120 V potential difference. (c = 3.0 × 108 m/s, h = 6.63 × 10-34Js, me = 9.11 × 10-31 kg, qe = 1.6 × 10-19 C)


Calculate the speed of the electron. Solution
Hint Clear Info
× 10
Incorrect Attempts:
CHECK
m/s
Hint Unavailable

Calculate the de Broglie wavelength of the electron. (Yes you read that right, the wavelength of the electron). Solution
Hint Clear Info
× 10
Incorrect Attempts:
CHECK
m
Hint Unavailable
Using the speed calculated previously, and, p = mv

As potential difference (V) is increased, what happens to the spacing of the fringes in the diffraction pattern (i.e. the wavelength, λ)? Solution
as potential difference (V) increases

... velocity (v) increases

... wavelength (λ) decreases

Schrödinger's Model of the Atom

The shape of the electron position in an atom is a: Solution
The electrons moving very fast form a 3-dimensional cloud in the shape of a sphere.

Photoelectric

For a given light beam with an initial intensity I0, increasing the intensity of the light source will increase the energy of excited electrons. Solution
Increasing intensity increases the number of photons of light, and this can excite a greater number of electrons, but the energy of each individual excited electron will remain the same, there is no difference in kinetic energy.

(Note - increasing the frequency of the light source will increase the kinetic energy of the emitted electrons, aka photoelectrons.)

Photoelectric

Hey what's threshold frequency? [1] Solution
Hint Clear Info
Incorrect Attempts:
CHECK
Hint Unavailable
For a certain kind of metal, there is a minimum frequency for electrons to be emitted from the material via the photoelectric effect.

As you can imagine, photons with a lower frequency will not be able to excite electrons in the metal.

Photoelectric Work Function

What part is the "work function" in the following equation? Solution
The work function (φ) is the minimum, threshold work (energy) required for an electron to be released from a metal material.

The frequency of incoming light, hf ultimately gives the photoelectron its net energy.

The whole equation is sometimes seen as A metal that releases electrons more easily in general, has a lower work function, φ.

Photoelectric Work Function

if the work function is greater than the energy of the incident (incoming) photons, then no electrons (photoelectrons) will be emitted from the metal material. Solution
If the work function is higher than the energy of the incident light, then no electrons will be emitted.

Photoelectric Work Function

In a vacuum, the minimum frequency of light to emit photoelectrons from a certain metal is 2.0 × 1015 Hz. (c = 3.0 × 108 m/s, h = 6.63 × 10-34Js)

The threshold frequency (f0) is independent of the type of metal. Solution
Different metal elements have different threshold frequencies.

Calculate the work function. Solution
Hint Clear Info
× 10
Incorrect Attempts:
CHECK
J
Hint Unavailable
The minimum frequency is the threshold frequency = 2.0 × 1015 Hz.

Calculate the maximum energy of an ejected photoelectron, if the wavelength of the incident light is 2 nm. Solution
Hint Clear Info
× 10
Incorrect Attempts:
CHECK
J
Hint Unavailable
You calculated the work function, φ = 1.3 × 10-18 J

Determine the minimum frequency (in nanometers) of incident light for a photoelectron to be emitted. Solution
Hint Clear Info
× 10
Incorrect Attempts:
CHECK
Hz
Hint Unavailable
A photoelectron is theoretically emitted at the instant when the kinetic energy is greater than 0, so to approximate you can just use KE = 0...

Photoelectric

The stopping potential required to stop the movement of a photoelectron in a particular setup is determined to be 100 V. Determine the work function of the metal if the frequency of the light beam is 1 × 1017 Hz. (c = 3.0 × 108 m/s, h = 6.63 × 10-34Js, qe = 1.6 × 10-19 C) Solution
φ =
Hint Clear Info
× 10
Incorrect Attempts:
CHECK
J
Hint Unavailable

Energy Levels

Given the following imaginary energy levels for an atom...

An electron can only make quantum jumps between adjacent energy levels. Solution
The electron is capable of jumping to any energy, depending on energy.

How many different electron jumps are there in the diagram given above? Solution
Hint Clear Info
Incorrect Attempts:
CHECK
Hint Unavailable
In this diagram, there are 6 different possible changes.

Calculate all the different energies of photons that could be absorbed by electrons, in electronvolts (eV). Solution
As electrons absorb energy, they jump up to a higher energy level. As electrons jump down to lower energy levels, they release energy in the form of light (photons).

Calculate the wavelength of the highest energy transition. (c = 3.0 × 108 m/s, h = 6.63 × 10-34Js, 1 eV = 1.6 × 10-19 J) Solution
Hint Clear Info
× 10
Incorrect Attempts:
CHECK
m
Hint Unavailable
As calculated before, the highest energy transition is 3.0 eV. Convert this to Joules: Calculate wavelength

Photoelectric

A Carbon-14 isotope 14C has a mass of 14.003241 u. (1 eV = 1.602 × 10-19 J, c = 3.0 × 108 m/s, mn,p = 1.67 × 10-27 kg)

Calculate the binding energy, in MeV. Solution
Hint Clear Info
× 10
Incorrect Attempts:
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MeV
Hint Unavailable
Calculate the binding energy (E) given 1.0u = mn,p = 1.67 × 10-27 kg Convert Joules (J) to mega-electronvolts (MeV):

Calculate the binding energy per nucleon. Solution
Hint Clear Info
Incorrect Attempts:
CHECK
MeV
Hint Unavailable
A nucleon is a proton or neutron. Carbon-14 has a total of 14 protons + neutrons.

Binding Energy

Calculate the amount of energy theoretically released when a proton collides with an anti-proton, antimatter. (1 eV = 1.602 × 10-19 J, c = 3.0 × 108 m/s, mn,p = 1.67 × 10-27 kg) Solution
Hint Clear Info
× 10
Incorrect Attempts:
CHECK
eV
Hint Unavailable
1 proton + 1 anti-proton = 2(m) (Also could calculate given that 1.0 u = 931.5 MeV/c2...)

The Michelson-Morley Experiment

The Michelson-Morley experiment used an interferometer to measure the time that light takes to travel over a certain distance. This experiment showed Solution
The experiment expected to see changes in the speed of light depending on the orientation relative to the ether.

However, since there was no change in the patterns of light, this concludes that ether does not exist.

Reference Frames

A ball on the frictionless surface of a moving car is in an inertial reference frame with respect to the car. Solution
While the car is in an inertial reference frame, the ball would be in a non-inertial reference frame.

An inertial reference frame is any frame of reference in which Newton's 1st law (law of inertia) is true: an object remains at rest or in constant motion unless acted upon by a net force.

The ball in the car is a non-inertial reference frame because if the car decelerated from constant motion, the movement of the ball relative to the car could not be explained with Newton's first law. The ball would appear to start to move inside the car with no apparent net force acting on it.

The Theory of Relativity

Not all frames of reference use the speed of light in a vacuum, 3 × 108 m/s. Solution
ALL frames of reference use the speed of light in a vacuum, 3 × 108 m/s.

The calculation of the speed of light in a vacuum (c) does not take into account the inertial reference frame (think: relative velocity).

Basically, the speed of light is constant relative to all inertial frames of reference. In other words, non-inertial reference frames (reference frames that are accelerating relative to inertial reference frames) do not always have constant speed of light.

Light Years

Light years is a unit of measurement of time. Solution
Light years is a unit of distance.

1 light year = 9.46 × 1015 meters

Length Contraction

Length contraction can occur in any direction compared to the direction of travel. Solution
Length contraction of an object only occurs in the direction of motion of travel.

Time Dilation

Time dilation refers to a decrease in time. Solution
It is the slowing down of time. Think of the space between each time unit as dilating or increasing, thereby increasing the time.

Time Dilation

Time is never absolute. In other words, time depends on the observer and can change with different frames of reference. Solution
Use thought experiments to think about how the location of the observer affects the time. (Not yet included here)

Time Dilation

A future astronaut can travel in space at 0.75c (0.75 times the speed of light). If the astronaut spends 10 minutes of their time on something, how much time would an external observer see it as? Solution
Hint Clear Info
Incorrect Attempts:
CHECK
min
Hint Unavailable

Time Dilation

As an spaceship travels faster and faster, what happens to the time observed by someone on a nearby planet compared to the time for an observer in the spaceship? Solution
As v increases, the time observed (to) increases. This is dilated time.

Someone in a spaceship traveling at a speed near the speed of light will have aged more compared to people on Earth, upon arriving back to Earth. Solution
The space traveller will actually have aged less than the people on Earth.

(Think of the 'twins' thought experiment).

Length Contraction

A future spacecraft can reach a speed of 0.66c. If the spacecraft travels 1,000km to an external observer, calculate the distance to the pilot in the spacecraft. In the length contraction equation, the length for the stationary observer is Lo and the length for the moving observer is L Solution
Hint Clear Info
Incorrect Attempts:
CHECK
km
Hint Unavailable

An asteroid travels past the Sun with a speed of 0.75c and is measured to be 5km in length (in the direction of travel) by people on a nearby planet. Calculate the actual length of the asteroid. Solution
Hint Clear Info
Incorrect Attempts:
CHECK
km
Hint Unavailable

Length Contraction and Time Dilation

A particle travels at 0.9c over a period of 1.2 seconds (to the observer at the particle). The particle starts at a distance of 10,000km away from Earth (to an observer on Earth).

To observers on Earth, state the time and distance. Solution
Hint Clear Info
distance =× 10 km
time =s
Incorrect Attempts:
CHECK
Hint Unavailable
d = 10,000km (observed on Earth)

Determine the time in the Earth's reference frame based on the time in the particle's reference frame, (ta): As you can see the time is dilated (longer) to 2.75 seconds to people on Earth.

Calculate the new distance travelled over this time observed on Earth:

To observers on the particle, state the time and distance. Solution
Hint Clear Info
distance =× 10 m
time =s
Incorrect Attempts:
CHECK
Hint Unavailable
t = 1.2 s

Determine the length based on the length in Earth's reference frame (Lo): Calculate the new time from the particles frame of reference: As you can see the distance and time is shorter in the frame of the particle.

Flashcards: Modern Quantum Physics

What is lightest, a proton, neutron, or electron?
Electron
E = h·f

Does the energy of a photon depend on the amplitude?
No, but it does depend on the frequency
What is an electronvolt (eV)?
A unit of energy.

1.0 eV is the work done in order to accelerate one electron through a 1.0 V potential difference.
Does a photon have mass?
No
How can the electrons in an atom create light?
As electrons drop to lower energy levels, energy is released in the form of light. Actually it's photons that are being emitted. (photons are pure energy and do not have a mass)
Describe a wave-like property of matter.
As an example, electrons can create diffraction patterns of fringes. Also, wavelength (λ) and frequency (f) can be calculated for electrons.
What is the photoelectric effect?
Incident light/photons on a non-dielectric material can cause electrons to be emitted from the material.
What is the work function?
This is the threshold frequency used to calculate the KEmax of an emitted electron. The work function (φ) is the minimum, threshold work (energy) required for an electron to be released from a metal material.
Describe factors that would increase the kinetic energy of an emitted photoelectron
(note that intensity of incident light has no affect on the kinetic energy in the photoelectric effect)

Higher frequency or lower wavelength of incident light would result in greater kinetic energy of photoelectrons.
Describe how an electron can store quantum of energy.
A quantum, or packet of energy is stored when a photon of light collides with an electron, causing the electron to move up to a higher energy level. The energy is stored as the negative electron is pulled apart from the positive nuclearcenter.
How is the red-orange glow of hot metal explained by the photoelectric effect?
The heat energy causes electrons to jump to higher energy levels. As the metal cools the electrons fall back down to lower energy levels, which releases energy in the form of photons/light, which you see as a warm glow.
Is binding energy the same as the mass defect energy in the equation?
E = mc2
Yes
What is a nucleon?
A nucleon is a proton or neutron. For instance carbon-14 has a total of 14 protons + neutrons, or 14 nucleons.
How is an inertial reference frame defined?
Any reference frame in which Newtonian physics holds true.
How is the movement of a crash test dummy in a crash considered a non-inertial reference frame?
Well the car is in an inertial reference frame because as a force is applied to the car, the car will decelerate. But the dummy is in a non-inertial reference frame because the dummy would appear to be accelerating with respect to the inside of the car with no apparent contact forces on the dummy.
Is light years a unit of time or distance?
Distance
What is time dilation?
Time dilation is the slowing of time (or increase in time) for external observers of events traveling near the speed of light.
What is length contraction?
Length contraction is the apparent decrease in length of an object or distance for an event near the speed of light. Note that length contraction always occurs in the same direction as the velocity.

(AP) Electromagnetic Induction

Magnetic Flux Units

The units for magnetic flux are

Induction

Current (i) produces a magnetic field (B), and a magnetic field (B) can produce a current (i). Solution
A coil experiences an induced current when the magnetic field passing through it varies.

Magnetic Flux

If wire coils are placed with the area perpendicular to a uniform magnetic field shown below, then the magnitude of flux (φ), is Solution
Flux φ is at a maximum when the area's normal is parallel with the magnetic field lines, the angle is zero.

Magnetic Flux

When the angle between the normal to the area of a coil and between the magnetic field is zero, then flux equals

Magnetic Flux

A circular coil with a 1 m2 area carries a 10 A current through a magnetic field of 0.2T. Determine the flux of a coil with 50 loops if the angle between the loops and the magnetic field is 60˚ to the normal of area. Solution
φ =
Hint Clear Info
Incorrect Attempts:
CHECK
Wb
Hint Unavailable

A circular coil carries a 10 A current through a magnetic field of 2 T. Determine the area of the coil with 5 loops if the maximum flux is 10 Wb. Solution
A =
Hint Clear Info
Incorrect Attempts:
CHECK
m2
Hint Unavailable

Faraday's Law

Which of the following is not equivalent to Faraday's Law?

Transformer

A physics student finds an old transformer that has 20 turns of wire on the primary (input) side and 10 turns on the secondary (induced) side. What kind of transformer is this? Solution
The ratio of emf's in the circuits is equal to the ratio of the number of turns.
p is primary, s is secondary. The secondary voltage is half the primary voltage. Therefore this is a step down transformer.

Transformer

In all transformers, the primary power equals the secondary power. Solution

Transformer

A primary circuit in a step up transformer has a 120 V potential difference and 230 turns.

If the secondary circuit has 500 turns, what is the secondary voltage? Solution
Hint Clear Info
Incorrect Attempts:
CHECK
V
Hint Unavailable
V is the voltage, N is the number of turns.

If the primary current is 10 A, determine the current in the secondary circuit. Solution
Hint Clear Info
Incorrect Attempts:
CHECK
A
Hint Unavailable

Electromagnetic Induction

Moving a magnet through the middle of a coil of a conductive material will create (induce) a movement of charges (current) in that material. Solution
True. Current is produced when the magnet is moving through the wire coil, but not produced when the magnet is stationary.

The speed of the magnet moving through a coil has no influence on the amount of current induced. Solution
False. Moving the magnet with greater speed will induce more current. No speed (speed of zero) will induce no current.

The strength of the magnet and number of coils in the wire does not affect the amount of current induced. Solution
False.

Electromagnetic Induction

The north pole of a 0.5 T magnet is approaching a coil with a radius of 5 cm and 10 turns. If the magnet is moved over 0.75 s determine the voltage generated. Solution
Hint Clear Info
Incorrect Attempts:
CHECK
V
Hint Unavailable

A 0.8 T uniform magnetic field is directed into the page. A single vertical ring on the same plane as the page is slowly moved into this uniform magnetic field at a rate of 0.125 m2/s. Solution
Hint Clear Info
Incorrect Attempts:
CHECK
V
Hint Unavailable

Electromagnetic Induction

A 10 cm metal rod is moved perpendicular to a 0.66 T uniform magnetic field. If the metal rod moves at 2.0 m/s, what emf is induced? Solution
Hint Clear Info
Incorrect Attempts:
CHECK
V
Hint Unavailable

Flashcards: Induction

What happens when a magnetic field (B) passes through the center of a coil of wire?
Current (i) is produced!
What is the unit of flux (φ)?
Weber (Wb)
Flux (φ) is at a maximum with what angle between the normal to the area and the magnetic field?
When the angle is 0˚ and the field lines are parallel to the normal of the area (or perpendicular to the cross sectional area of the loop).
Explain how a transformer works
Transformers use electromagnetic induction to generate a magnetic field in an iron core at the primary input side, which induces a current in a secondary coil. The power on each side is constant while the current and potential difference vary based on the number of coils on either side.
Compare the number of coils on the primary versus secondary side of a step-down transformer.
A step-down transformer reduces the potential difference. There are less coils on the secondary side of a step-down transformer.

(AP) Circuits

Total Charge and Current (Review)

An object is charged with a total net of 100 electrons, given the elementary charge e = 1.6 × 10-19C.

Calculate the total charge (Q). Solution
Hint Clear Info
× 10
Incorrect Attempts:
CHECK
C
Hint Unavailable
e = -1.6 × 10-19C

Current (i) is the flow of charges per unit of time. Solution
True.

Calculate the time to discharge the charge of 100 electrons if the current is 1.0 × 10-10A. Solution
Hint Clear Info
× 10
Incorrect Attempts:
CHECK
s
Hint Unavailable
Q = -1.6 × 10-17C

i = 1.0 × 10-10A

Calculations with V (Review)

A 10V battery powers a device with a 2mA current. Calculate the energy applied over 1 minute. Solution
Hint Clear Info
Incorrect Attempts:
CHECK
J
Hint Unavailable
2 mA = 2 × 10-3 A

1 minute = 60 s

The Law of Conservation of Energy (Review)

The law of conservation of energy states:

The sum of the energy gained in a circuit is equal to the sum of energy lost in that circuit. Solution
True.

Energy is gained in _________________, and used in _________________. (Fill in the blanks) Solution
Energy is gained in Sources, and used in Loads. (Fill in the blanks)

Energy and Volts (Review)

Voltage is also called electric potential. A cell increases electrical potential energy and a load uses electrical potential energy.

A power source (for example, a battery) creates the potential difference in a circuit. Solution
Potential difference is the correct term for the unofficial term "voltage".

Batteries store electric potential energy per unit of charge (electron).

Voltage = Electromotive Force (EMF) Solution
EMF is an outdated term. Voltage is an unofficial term. The most correct term to use in place of "voltage" and EMF is potential difference.

Voltage = Energy Solution
This is almost true. However, voltage (electric potential) is electric potential energy, in Joules per unit of charge, q. See that voltage is J/C.



So, voltage is electric potential (and not electric potential energy).

Series and Parallel (Review)

Which two statements are true? (check both)

Kirchhoff's (Review)

Match the correct equations with the type of circuits below.

  1. RT = R1 + R2 + ...
  2. VT = V1 + V2 + ...
  3. VT = V1 = V2 = ...
  4. iT = i1 + i2 + ...
  5. iT = i1 = i2 = ...

A series circuit uses which equations?

A parallel circuit uses which equations?

Kirchhoff's Laws (Review)

Complete the following using the laws of Gustav R. Kirchhoff (1824 - 1887).

Determine the voltage across resistor 1. Solution
The total increase in electric potential (voltage) is equal to the total decrease in electric potential across one path in a circuit.

Determine the voltage across resistor 2. Solution
The total increase in electric potential (voltage) is equal to the total decrease in electric potential across one path in a circuit.

Determine the current across resistor 1. Solution
The current at the start of a junction is equal to the current at the end point of that junction.

Determine the current across resistor 2. Solution
The current at the start of a junction is equal to the current at the end point of that junction.

Kirchhoff's Laws (Review)

Determine the missing potential differences and currents using Kirchhoff's laws. Solution
Hint Clear Info
i1 =        A
V2 =       V
V3 =       V
i3 =        A
Incorrect Attempts:
CHECK
Hint Unavailable
Calculations not shown

Ohm's Law (Review)

Ohm's law can be applied as: Solution
Ohm's law is: V = i R

Kirchhoff's and Ohm's Laws (Review)

Use Kirchhoff's law and Ohm's law (below) to solve the following circuits.

V = i R

Solution
Hint Clear Info
V1 =       V
i3 =        A
i1 =        A
V3 =       V
R1 =       Ω
R2 =       Ω
R3 =       Ω
Incorrect Attempts:
CHECK
Hint Unavailable
Calculations not shown

Solution
Hint Clear Info
V2 =       V
i1 =        A
i2 =        A
R2 =       Ω
V3 =       V
V4 =       V
R4 =       Ω
i3 =        A
iT =        A
Incorrect Attempts:
CHECK
Hint Unavailable

Power (Review)

Power is the rate of energy use per unit of time.

True or false?

Which situation has the lowest power? Solution

Resisitivity Units

What are the units of resistivity? Solution
Dimensional Analysis (with SI units):

Length, L is in meters, m
Area, A is in meters2, m2
Resistance, R is in ohms, Ω
What units would fill the blank [ ] to give ohm Ω units on the left-hand-side?

Answer: Ω·m

What is Resisitivity

Resistivity is the:

Resisitivity Factors

The resistivity of a material depends on the length of the material, but not the area. Solution
Resistance (R), rather than resisitivity (ρ) depends on both length and cross-sectional area.

Simple Resistivity

Answer the following questions using the approximate resistivity values given in the table below. Resisitivity values have been rounded for ease of calculations.

MaterialApproximate Resisitivity, ρ (Ω·m)
Copper1.5 × 10 – 8
Gold2.5 × 10 – 8
Iron1 × 10 – 7
Titanium4 × 10 – 7
Stainless Steel7 × 10 – 7
Carbon Graphite4 × 10 – 6
Sea Water2 × 10 – 1
Tap Water2 × 10 2
Air2 × 10 16
Polyester (PET)1 × 10 21

A 10 m wire of an unknown material has a cross-sectional area of 4.1 × 10 -3 cm2 and a resistance of 6.098 × 10 -2 Ω. The wire is tested to determine the resistivity and identified as: Solution
Convert all to same units of lengths, e.g. cm
L = 10 m = 10,000 cm
This resistivity value corresponds to gold.

A 0.5A current passes through a 10cm iron rod with a 0.1V potential difference. Calculate the area. Solution
Hint Clear Info
× 10
Incorrect Attempts:
CHECK
m2
Hint Unavailable
Convert: 10cm = 0.1 m

Resistivity Basics

Resisitivity, area, length, and potential difference can be used to calculate the current in a wire. Solution
Take the following as an example: A 15 gauge wire has a cross-sectional area of 1.65mm2. If 50mm of 15 gauge copper wire is used in a circuit with a potential difference of 120V, determine the current.

(V = i·R)

This would mean the current is over 200 million Amps! Not possible!

However, we could use the resisitivity equation to solve for other things given the current...

Units of Capacitance

Capacitance uses which units?

Capacitor Parallel Plates

Capacitors store energy with an electric field created from charges accumulated on parallel plates.

A capacitor can be used as a source of electric potential difference. Solution
When a capacitor is connected to a source, the capacitor stores electrical charges on the plates.

When the source is disconnected from a charged capacitor, then the capacitor releases the charges over time just like a source.

Capacitor Current

Capacitors propagate current, and discharge when charges jump across the electric field separation distance of the parallel plates. Solution
Charges do not physically cross across the gap, which contains an insulator in addition to the natural insulative properties of air.

Current does propagate through parallel plates as positive charges accumulate on the positive plate and repels the positive charges on the plate across the gap. This repellence causes the charges to move through the capacitor and through the circuit.

When a capacitor becomes fully charged, current can no longer propagate through the capacitor. Solution
Current stops when charges stop 'flowing'

Capacitors in Parallel and Series

What is the difference in total capacitance with capacitors in series, compared to in parallel? Solution
Capacitors in parallel add like one big capacitor. Capacitors in series decrease the overall capacitance.

(Side-note: Capacitors in series combine like resistors in parallel).

Charging Capacitors

A capacitor is charged from zero to full capacity. Which of the following would represent a graph of the charge (y-axis) on the capacitor plates versus time (x-axis). Solution
The capacitor plates accumulate and store charges quickly at first, but as the charges on the plates increases, these charges repel the addition of new charges, so the charge accumulation slows over time.

(The capacitor discharges quickly at first, and the rate slows, according to figure 'E')

Charging Capacitors

Which two of the following would increase the charge capacity of a capacitor? (More than one answer: check all that apply) Solution
Surface area, and separation distance of the plates.

Capacitor Behaviour

A capacitor acts as a load when: Solution
The capacitor acts as a load as it accumulates and stores charges. When the potential difference source is removed from the circuit, the capacitor acts as the source.

Materials Used in Capacitors

Capacitors are made with different materials that allow a higher amount of charges to collect on the parallel plates for a given amount of potential difference. 0 = 8.85 × 10-12 F/m)

MaterialRelative Dielectric Permittivity, 'k'
Air1.0
Rubber3.0
Glass5.0
Porcelain6.5
Distilled Water80

Which dielectric material would give the highest capacitance? Solution
Pure (distilled) water has a relative permittivity of 80.0

Pure water has a permittivity approximated 80 times higher than the permittivity of air (or a vaccuum).

Circular parallel plate capacitors with a 1cm radius are used with a glass dielectric material separating the plates. If the separation distance of the plates is 5 mm, determine the capacitance. Solution
C =
Hint Clear Info
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F
Hint Unavailable
Area of a circle with radius = 1 cm.
ε0 = 8.85 × 10-12 F/m
k = 5.0
d = 5 mm = 0.5 cm

Determine the charge stored on the capacitor from the previous section when connected to a circuit with a 10.0 V potential difference. Solution
Hint Clear Info
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C
Hint Unavailable
On tests, this question could be given as a single, two-step question, without the previous part...

Capacitor Theory

For a 1.0 V potential difference, increasing the capacitance by a factor of 4 would increase the charge stored on each plate by what factor? Solution
Increasing capacitance by a factor of 4 will increase charge by a factor of 4.

Capacitor calculations

A capacitor has an electric field between the parallel plates that depends on several factors including the separation distance of the plates and the dielectric material used between the plates.

The following sequence of substitutions is correct. Solution
Yup, it's true

Maintaining constant capacitance (C) and potential difference (V), what happens to the charge (Q) and electric field (E) as the separation distance is decreased by half? Solution
Capacitance (C) is constant.

Charge on the plates is constant. Charges stay and do not change when the potential difference (V) is constant.

Therefore electric field (E) doubles.

Capacitor calculations

A capacitor stores energy as the electric field created from charges on parallel plates.

The following is correct. Solution
Yup, true. You may even use this.

Each plate of a capacitor stores a 45 mC charge in a circuit with a 5.0 V potential difference. Calculate the energy stored in the capacitor. Solution
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J
Hint Unavailable
V = 5.0 V

Q = 4.5 × 10-3 C

If a 0.2 F capacitor stores 80 J of energy, determine the potential difference. Solution
Hint Clear Info
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V
Hint Unavailable

Capacitance in Circuits

Which of the following is used in parallel circuits?

Which of the following contains incorrect steps? Solution
All are correct. You should be able to do this and use these equations in different scenarios.

Capacitors

Which statement is false? Solution
Capacitors added in series decrease the equivalent (overall) capacitance.

Capacitors in Series

For two capacitors in series, the following formula is correct to use. Solution
This is a continuation of the form below, where a common denominator has been made by multiplying (steps not shown)...

Capacitors in Circuits

Three identical 5.0 mF capacitors are connected according the diagram below.

Determine the equivalent capacitance of the two capacitors in parallel. Solution
Hint Clear Info
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mF
Hint Unavailable

Determine the equivalent capacitance of the total circuit. Solution
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mF
Hint Unavailable
Add the parallel capacitors as one capacitor in series with the remaining capacitor:

Capacitors in Circuits

Determine the equivalent capacitance of the total circuit if each capacitor is a whopping 2 F. Solution
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F
Hint Unavailable
Add C1 and C2 in series: Add C3 and C4 in series: Add the remaining in parallel:

Capacitor

You have three, large, identical 1 F capacitors. You add two in parallel. Which of the following changes to the third capacitor would make it equal the total capacitance of the two capacitors in parallel? Solution
The two capacitors in parallel equal 2 F.

The third capacitor could be changed with the following values: Note that the dielectric materials and area are not easy to change, and that decreasing the separation distance of the plates by a half would double the capacitance.

Flashcards: Circuits

What is the unit of Capacitance (C)?
Farad (F)
What is current?
Current is the flow of charges over a certain time interval
What is potential difference (V)?
Potential difference (in Volts) is the energy (Joules) per charge (Coulomb) at a load like a resistor or lightbulb.
What is the main difference between AC and DC electricity?
Alternating current (AC) changes direction many times per second. Direct current (DC) flows in a constant direction. (As examples, electrical outlets are AC, and batteries are DC)
Is conventional current the flow of positive or negative charges?
As a standard, conventional current uses the flow of positive charges.

(Even though you know electricity is the transmission of charges, like negative electrons in a wire)
What is the Ohm's law equation?
Potential difference equals current times resistance

V = i·R
What is the difference between potential difference (V) and emf (ε)?
While both quantities are measured in volt units, the emf is at a source while the potential difference is at a load.
State the law of conservation of energy in circuits.
The sum of the energy gained in one circuit is equal to the sum of energy lost in one circuit.
Does adding resistors in parallel increase or decrease the total resistance of the circuit?
Resistors added in parallel decrease the overall resistance.
What electrical quantity is equal for all loads in series?
Current (i) is the same for loads connected in series. Current splits off at junctions, and there are not junctions in series.
What is power and what is the unit of power?
Power is the change in energy over the change in time. The unit of power is the Watt (W).
What is the unit of resistance (R)?
Ohm (Ω)
What is resistance (R)?
Resistance of the flow of electric current in a material
Explain how length, cross-sectional area, and temperature affect the resistance in a wire.
Longer lengths increase resistance, larger cross-sectional areas decrease resistance, and higher temperatures increase resistance.
What is Kirchoff's Second Law?
Around any loop in a circuit, the sum of the voltage drops at the loads must equal the sum of the voltage gains at the sources.
When does a capacitor act like a source and release electrical charges into the circuit?
When the potential difference of the capacitor is greater than the electromotive force (emf) of the source.
What does the dielectric do in a capacitor?
A dielectric is a non-conductive material (oil, ceramics, air...) that acts to decrease the amount of charges that jump between the two parallel plates. This insulator acts to increase the capacitance (C), or the total amount of charge (q) that can be stored for a given potential difference (V).

(AP) Fluids

Density (rho, ρ)

Determine the volume of air given: density, ρ = 1.29 kg/m3, and mass = 10 kg. Solution
Hint Clear Info
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m3
Hint Unavailable

Gauge Pressure

The most common formula for gauge pressure is: Solution
Gauge pressure is caused by the weight of the column (volume) of fluid above a certain height. [Not shown: see the weight, with a unit analysis of: ρ × g × h]

Absolute Pressure at a Depth h

Absolute pressure can be calculated by Solution
Absolute pressure equals the sum of gauge pressure and atmospheric pressure.

Units for Pressure

The SI units for pressure are: Solution
1.0 Pascal (Pa) = 1.0 N/m2 = 1.0 kg·m−1·s−2

Conversion of Units of Pressure

1 atm = ___________ Pa = ___________ Torr Solution
This is usually expected to be memorized: 1 atm = 101,300 Pa = 760 Torr

Pascal's Principle

Pascal's principle states: Solution
Basically, pressure is spread equally in fluids.

Unit Analysis of Fluids

The following unit analysis is correct for the weight (Fgravity) of a fluid. Solution
This is correct. To check you can finish with a pseudo-dimensional analysis of the units of each quantity like: True.

Density of Water

The density of cool water is 100 kg/m3. Solution
You may remember at least one of these ratios from a previous year, so you are expected to be able to convert, when needed:

Specific Gravity

Determine the specific gravity of a fluid with a mass of 10 kg and a volume of 5 m3. Solution
Hint Clear Info
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Hint Unavailable
Specific gravity is the ratio of the density of the substance to the density of water (at 4˚C). Since the density of water is 1.0 g/cm3 or 1.0 x 103 kg/m3, then the specific gravity is equal to the ratio of the density of the object divided by the density of water: (Notice that specific gravity has no units because they get cancelled.

Specific Gravity Calculation

An empty container has a mass of 0.25kg. When this container is filled with water (ρ = 1000 kg/m3) it weights 0.88kg in total. The water is poured out and the same volume of another unknown liquid is poured in - the total weight is now 0.93kg. What is the specific gravity of this unknown liquid (round your answer to one decimal)? Solution
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Hint Unavailable
Calculate the volume of the container Then calculate the density (ρ) of the unknown fluid Finally calculate the specific gravity of the unknown fluid

Pascal's Principle

An underground gasoline storage tank is 3.5m high, and has a radius of 1.5m. When the tank is ¾ full, calculate the absolute pressure on the bottom of the storage tank. (ρgasoline = 680 kg/m3, Patmospheric = 101,300Pa) Solution
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Pa
Hint Unavailable
Pabs = Patm + ρgh

Pascal's Principle: Hydraulic Lifting and Mechanical Advantage

A hydraulic lift consists of two cylindrical pistons connected with a cable containing an incompressible fluid. When piston 'A' is pushed downward with a pressure of 100 Pa, the force exerted upwards on side 'B' is 1,000 N. The radius of piston on side 'A' is 4cm.

Calculate the radius of piston 'B' Solution
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m
Hint Unavailable
Based on Pascal's principle, basically the pressure anywhere in a fluid is equal and changes in pressure are exerted everywhere equally.
So:

If piston 'A' was pushed downward by a vertical distance of 30cm, calculate the height moved upwards by piston 'B' Solution
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m
Hint Unavailable
Get this! >> The change in volume is the same on either side!

Volume of Cylinder = Base Area × Height The trade-off for being able to push down with only 100Pa to lift 1000N, is that the vertical height change of the 1000N force is quite low.

Pascal's Principle: Hydraulic Lifting and Mechanical Advantage Higher-Level

A hydraulic lift has a smaller piston and a larger piston each 2cm and 6cm in diameter, respectively.

Calculate the mass that the hydraulic system can lift when the smaller piston is compressed with 30 kg of weight. Solution
m =
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kg
Hint Unavailable

Calculate the mechanical advantage of the lift system. Solution
MA =
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times
Mechanical advantage is the ratio of output force to input force.
wow you multiplied your force by 9 times, that's kind of impressive !

Archimedes' Principle: Buoyancy

A research submarine has a volume of 10 m3 and a mass of 1000kg. It needs to lift a treasure chest full of silver and gold found on a wreckage. Determine the maximum mass of cargo can this submarine can lift. To simplify, assume the gold cargo has zero buoyant force for this calculation. Solution
Hint Clear Info
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kg
The submarine will be maxed when the force of gravity (Fg) equals the buoyant force (Fb). Gravity cancels.
The submarine will be maxed when the force of gravity (Fg) equals the buoyant force (Fb).

Let 'x' represent the mass of the cargo. The submarine reaches equilibrium at when lifting approximately 9,000kg. So a cargo mass slightly less than 9,000kg is the max...

Archimedes Principle: Concept

Two identical water pails are filled to the brim with water. A block of wood is placed and floated in one of the pails causing some of the water to spill over the sides. The pails are then carefully weighed. What can we say about the masses of the pails (with contents)? Solution
A floating object has a buoyant force (Fb) equal to the weight of the fluid displaced. Or in other words, the mass of the object will have the same mass as the fluid spilled from the pail.

Archimedes' Principle: Measuring Density with Water and a Scale, Without Volume

A teller at a gold exchange has received a deposit of 12 gold bricks and must verify whether the gold is pure. The gold bricks are sent to the back for some lab analysis - submerging each brick under water and comparing the weight submerged, to the regular weight in air. Each brick was measured to weigh 1.000 kg in air, and 0.940 kg while submerged under water. Determine the density and whether the bricks are pure gold. (ρgold = 19,300 kg/m3 and ρwater = 1,000 kg/m3) Solution
ρ =
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kg/m3
Hint Unavailable

Archimedes' Principle: Tension due to Buoyancy

An incompressible 10.0L float is attached to a 50kg iron anchor with a 10m rope. This assembly is dropped into a lake with a depth of 20m. Assume the temperature of the water to be a constant 4˚C throughout. Determine the tension of the rope at the points listed below. (ρiron = 7,800 kg/m3 and ρwater = 1,000 kg/m3)

When the anchor is 12m from the surface of the water, assuming the volume of the anchor is negligible. Solution
T =
Hint Clear Info
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N
Hint Unavailable
Buoyant force is equal to the weight of the water displaced...

Careful, 10.0 L = 0.01 m3 (divide by 1,000)

During the descent of the anchor, the total tension in the rope is:

When the anchor is at rest on the bottom of the lake. Solution
T =
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N
Hint Unavailable
The tension is ONLY due to the Fbuoy of the float, and not the Fg! Think of it like a rope and float attached to the bottom of the lake itself.

Determine the tension when the anchor is 12m from the surface of the water, now including the Fbuoy of the anchor in addition to the Fbuoy of the float... Solution
T =
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N
Hint Unavailable
You can calculate the volume of the anchor because you have the mass and density, Now determine the net tension force...

Flow Rate with Volume, Area, Time

A municipal water tank, 12m x 40m x 25m is filled in 38 minutes and 12 seconds. The water is filled through a pipe with a 0.22m radius. Determine the flow rate of the water supplied. Solution
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m/s
Hint Unavailable
Flow rate = (Volume x Cross-Sectional Area) / Time = 0.8 m/s

Flow Rate with Area and Velocity: Continuity Equation with Constant 'ρ'

A direct, un-branched pipeline supplying emergency water to the 99th floor of the Empire State Building is pumped at 2.3m/s in the basement through a 0.13m radius pipe up to a pipe with a 4.5cm radius. The speed of the water on the 99th floor is. Solution
Hint Clear Info
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m/s
Hint Unavailable
Use the continuity equation,

Bernoulli's Principle in a Water Reservoir

A barrel 2.0m tall is filled with fruity Tropical Punch and set on a table 1.0m high. At the very bottom of the barrel, a spout is used for pouring the liquid.

Determine the speed of the punch at the spout when the barrel is full. Solution
v =
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m/s
Hint Unavailable
Use Bernoulli's equation. Assume v(1) top of reservoir = 0. Densities (ρ) cancel. Also P1 at the top surface of the reservoir, and P2 outside of the spout (spigot) are both considered to be open in air, equal to atmospheric pressure, so they are the same magnitude - thus they cancel.
  • P = pressure
  • ρ = density
  • v = fluid flow rate (speed)
  • y = height (elevation)
  • g = gravitational acceleration

Determine the speed of the punch at the spout when the barrel is 1/10th full. Solution
v =
Hint Clear Info
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m/s
Hint Unavailable
As explained before, the equation simplifies to...

Bernoulli's Principle: Pressure due to Speed

Airspeed lifts an airplane. Use Bernoulli's equation to determine the weight that can be lifted if the airspeed is 110 m/s (396 km/hr) and the total wingspan can be approximated as 396 m2. Neglect air resistance (drag), and all other dissipative factors. The density of air is 1.29 kg/m3. Solution
W =
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N
Hint Unavailable
Pressure due to velocity is:



Weight = Force = Pdue to speed × A (Large aircraft have a lift around 600,000 N - 6,000,000 N)

For a 65 m2 roof of a house in Bradenton, Florida, calculate the upward lift force during 20 m/s gale-force winds. Solution
F =
Hint Clear Info
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N
Hint Unavailable
Pressure due to velocity is:



Weight = Force = Pdue to speed × A (This is ~1.7 tons)

Flashcards: Fluids

What is the symbol for density?
Rho

ρ
Determine the density of a fluid that has a mass of 2kg and a volume of 1m3.
= 2 kg/m3
What is the density (ρ) of water

(at standard 1atm and 4˚C)
= 1,000 kg/m3

(1 g/cm3)
What is the difference between absolute pressure and gauge pressure?
Gauge pressure (ρgh) is the pressure in a fluid based on the depth, gravity, and density of the fluid. Absolute pressure is the gauge pressure plus the atmospheric pressure.
What is the SI unit of pressure?
Pascal

Pa
Describe one factor that would increase the viscosity of a given fluid?
Decreasing the temperature. This would bring the molecules of the fluid closer together as the molecular kinetic energy decreases. As a result, this increases the friction between the molecules.
What is Pascal's principle
Pressure exerted anywhere in a confined fluid is transmitted equally to all points within that fluid such that external changes in pressure will be changed equally at all points in the container.
True/False:

Pressure = Force ÷ Area
True
True/False:

Pressure = (Density)(Gravity)(Volume) ÷ Area
True
What is specific gravity?
Specific gravity is the ratio of the density of the substance to the density of water (at 4˚C).

= ρx ÷ ρwater
Explain how a hydraulic lift is able to lift heavy weights on one end by exerting a minimal force on the other end
The pressure everywhere in the hydraulic is constant. Therefore the ratio of force over area is also constant. A smaller force exerted over a smaller area can push a greater force distributed over a greater area. The trade-off with this greater force is it will move a smaller distance than the first distance.
What is Archimedes' Principle?
The buoyant force (Fb) of an object is equal to the weight of the fluid displaced by that object

Fb = ρ·g·V
Describe the equation for the velocity of a fluid:

A1v1 = A2v2
As the cross sectional area decreases, the velocity increases, etc.

(AP) Thermodynamics

Energy Transfer

Name the main processes by which energy can be transferred in the following situations Solution
SpaceAtmosphereWaterGround
Energy Transfer(s):IIIIIIIV
I: Radiation, II: Radiation and Convection, III: Convection, IV: Conduction

Heat Transfer

State the four methods of heat transfer from a flame on a stovetop, to the inside of an egg boiling in a pot of water. [1] Solution
Hint Clear Info
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Hint Unavailable
1) Convection and radiation from the flame through the air

2) Conduction through the metal

3) Convection through the water

4) Convection through the egg if it's liquid, convection if it's solid.

Heat and Temperature

Heat and temperature are the same. Solution
Heat describes the moving of energy from one thing to another.

Temperature is a measurement of the thermal energy of something.

Physical Properties of Gases

Why are gases compressible? [1] Solution
Hint Clear Info
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Hint Unavailable
Unlike solids or liquids, gas molecules can be squeezed closer together because they are spaced relatively far apart to begin with. The Kinetic Molecular Theory says the space occupied by the gas molecules is negligible compared to the total volume.

Kinetic Molecular Theory

A substance in which physical state has the highest internal kinetic energy? Solution
Gas particles generally have higher kinetic energies than particles in liquid or solid phase.

Standard Temperature and Pressure (STP)

Which of the following is the standard temperature and pressure (STP)? Solution
Not to be confused with the newer standard atmospheric temperature and pressure (SATP), which is 100kPa and 25˚C.

Units of Pressure

Determine the equivalent value of Pascals (Pa) in 100 kPa. Solution
1 kPa = 1,000 Pa

Units of Pressure

A noble gas is stored in a laboratory tank at 5 atm.

Determine the equivalent pressure in kPa, given 1 atm = 101.325 kPa Solution
P =
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kPa
Hint Unavailable

Convert this the previous value in kPa to torr, given 101.325 kPa = 760 torr. Solution
P =
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torr
Hint Unavailable

Gas Laws

Which of the following is Charles' Law? Solution
Charles' Law:

Gay-Lussac's Law:

Avogadro's Law:

Boyle's Law: P1V1 = P2V2

Ideal Gas Law: PV = nRT

When using Charles' law, it does not matter what version of units of temperature are used. Solution
Temperature units must be converted to Kelvin.

Charles' law can be written as either of the following: Solution
Due to the law of proportionality, it does not matter which of these two orders the law is written in.

Which version of the following units must be used in Charles', Boyle's, or Gay-Lussac's law? Solution
The units of pressure and volume do not matter (as long as they are consistent).

The only unit that must be used is Kelvin for Temperature.

Charles' Law

In the following relationship, V is inversely proportional to T. Solution
For example, with a constant value for 'k', increasing temperature by a factor of two, must coincide with the same increase in volume: V is directly proportional to T

Boyle's Law

What must be maintained constant in Boyle's Law? Solution
PV = k Boyle's Law compares Volume and Pressure. The product of volume and pressure is constant because their relationship is inversely proportional (as one increases, the other decreases).

(Note that pressure and amount of gas must be kept constant to use Charles' Law.)

Converting Kelvin and Celsius

Convert 273K to Celsius: Solution
Hint Clear Info
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˚C
Hint Unavailable
Celsius = Kelvin - 273

Kelvin = Celsius + 273

0K = -273˚C

Dalton's Law of Partial Pressure

Three gases occupy a closed container. Gas 'A' has a partial pressure of 380 mmHg, while gas 'B' has a partial pressure of 202.65 kPa. If the total pressure is 4 atm, find the pressure of gas 'C' Solution
Hint Clear Info
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atm
Hint Unavailable
First, convert all units to the same unit.

Gas Laws

Solve the following problems.

A 10.0 L gas canister contains air at 3 atm. If 2.0 L of air is added to the canister while temperature and amount of the gas is constant, what is the new pressure? Solution
P =
Hint Clear Info
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atm
Hint Unavailable
Givens:
P1 = 3 atm
V1 = 10.0 L
V2 = Total Volume = 10.0 L + 2.0 L
Find P2.
Use Boyle's Law

A constant amount of gas in an isobaric chamber is cooled from 300˚C to 100˚C. If the starting volume was 5.0 L, find the new volume. Solution
Hint Clear Info
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L
Hint Unavailable
Givens:
T1 = 300˚C
T2 = 100˚C
V1 = 5.0 L
Find V2.
Use Charles' Law

The Combined Gas Law

Given the following three gas laws, determine the correct combined gas law based on the proportionality of the given laws: Boyle's Law:   P1V1 = P2V2

Charles' Law:

Gay-Lussac's Law:

The Combined Gas Law

A gas canister contains 35 mL of N2 (g) at 580 mmHg and 30˚C. What volume would the gas occupy at STP? Solution
V =
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mL
Hint Unavailable
Givens:
STP is 0˚C (273K) and 101.3kPa
P2 = 101.3 kPa = 760 mmHg
T2 = 273 K
V1 = 35 mL
P1 = 580 mmHg
T1 = 30˚C + 273K = 303K
Make sure to convert units to be consistent.
Temperature must be in K.

Gas Law Relationships

Determine the correct relationship in the following graphs, assuming other factors are kept constant and the gas behaves ideally. Solution
Notice that P-T and V-T have a linear relationship: The relationship between P and T is also linear : These relationships can also be explained with the combined gas law.

(n-V has a linear relationship where V is a horizontal line, i.e. the V is due to the space between the gases since the gas particles have no volume).

Gas Law Relationships

Describe the slope on a graph of n versus V, assuming other factors are kept constant and the gas behaves ideally. Solution
Avogadro's Law: P (↑V) = (↑n) R T Moles (n) and Volume (V) are directly proportional, as one increases, the other increases. A graph with n on the x-axis and V on the y-axis would have a linear, positive slope.

Gas Law Relationships

Describe the relationship on the graph between V (volume on the x-axis) versus PV (pressure × volume, on the y-axis). [1] Solution
Hint Clear Info
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Hint Unavailable
Boyle's Law states that at constant temperature and amount of gas, the product of volume and pressure is constant because their relationship is inversely proportional (as one increases, the other decreases). 'k' is constant. P V = k ↑P ↓V = ~k A 'V—PV' graph would appear as a horizontal line (with a slope of zero). As V increases, P decreases by the inverse factor so PV is flat.

Ideal Gas Theory

A scientist is calculating the temperature of an ideal gas. She measures the volume and the amount of moles of the sample. To determine the temperature, what other measurement must the scientist make? (R = 8.31) Solution
PV = nRT

Ideal Gas Theory

Ideal gas particles (atoms, molecules) have zero volume. Solution
For the volume to be based on the intermolecular interactions, the molecules themselves are assumed to occupy zero volume.

Increasing the amount of moles (n) of an ideal gas increases the volume of that gas. Solution
While it is true that ideal gas particles (atoms, molecules) are considered to have zero volume, it is the space between the gas particles that does occupy a volume and that's what counts.

The Ideal Gas Law

The ideal gas law contains relationships derived from which of the following gas laws? Solution
Ideal Gas Law: PV = nRT

Charles' Law:

Gay-Lussac's Law:

Avogadro's Law:

Boyle's Law: P1V1 = P2V2

The Ideal Gas Law

The ideal gas constant R = 8.31, must use which combination of units for Pressure, Volume, and Temperature? Solution
If units are not given in kPa, L, and K then they must be converted to these units before used in the equation.

R = 8.31 kPa·L/mol·K

The Ideal Gas Law

Given the following values, determine the correct equation to find the amount of moles. (R = 8.13) Solution
Pressure:101,325 Pa
Volume:18,500 mL
Temperature:10 ˚C
Convert all units to kPa, L, and K for R = 8.31 kPa·L/mol·K

The Ideal Gas Law

10.0 L of carbon dioxide (CO2) gas is compressed into a canister at -20˚C and 4.71 atm.

Determine the amount of moles. Solution
n =
Hint Clear Info
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mol
Hint Unavailable

Determine the mass of this sample, given the molecular weight of carbon dioxide is 44 g/mol. Round to a whole number. Solution
m =
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g
Hint Unavailable
MW CO2 = 44 g/mol.

Partial Pressure and Ideal Gases

A 5.0 L insulated container contains the following mixture of gases at 0˚C and 2 atm:

GasPercentage
N260%
O230%
C3H810%

Determine the partial pressure of N2. Solution
Dalton's Law of Partial Pressure: Ptotal = P1 + P2 + P3 + ...

In this question Ptotal = 2 atm

The partial pressure of N2 is 60% of 2 atm = 0.6(2 atm) = 1.2 atm

Determine the amount of moles N2 in the mixture. Solution
n =
Hint Clear Info
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mol
Hint Unavailable
R = 8.13 kPa·L/mol·K

0˚C = 273K

Application of the Ideal Gas Law

A 34.5 g sample of an unknown gas is collected at room temperature (20˚C) and atmospheric pressure (101.325 kPa). The initial reading on a near-vacuum collection cylinder is 10 mL and the final amount once filled is 18,040 mL.

Determine the amount of moles in the collection sample. Solution
Hint Clear Info
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mol
Hint Unavailable
20 ˚C = 293 K
R = 8.314 kPa·L/mol·K

Determine the molecular weight of the sample. Solution
Hint Clear Info
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g/mol
Hint Unavailable
n = 0.75 mol
m = 34.5 g

Determine the identity of the gas.
Molecular weights are given to make it simpler for the student.

Gas Laws

Which of the following statements about gases is not a true fact about ideal gases? Solution
Absolute zero (0.0 K) can never be reached so gas particles can never stop. [Edit: now possible.]

The volume occupied by a gas does not consist of the volume of the atoms or molecules—this volume comes from the molecules colliding and spreading apart from one another.

Since the gas volume comes from space between colliding gas particles, theoretically it cannot have any volume if the particles are not moving at 0K (although this cannot actually happen).

The state of an ideal gas is always gaseous when calculating, for instance the boiling point of ammonia (NH3) is -33.34 °C, but even at -50 °C, it would still be considered gaseous.

Gas Laws

Determine the outcome when each of the following changes are made to the following equation.

PV = nRT

Volume will decrease by a factor of ¼ when pressure is doubled, temperature is halved, and moles are kept constant. Solution
Therefore volume will decrease by a factor of ¼.

By what factor will temperature change when pressure is increased by a factor of 3, volume is decreased by a factor of ¾, and moles are increased by a factor of 2. (Reduce your exact answer fully) Solution
Hint Clear Info
━━
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Therefore temperature will increase by a factor of .

Thermal expansion

For the following questions, the thermal expansion for iron is 11.8 × 10-6 K-1 and aluminum is 23.1 × 10-6 K-1.

A 0.9 m iron bar is heated from 1˚C to 30˚C. By how much does the material lengthen? Solution
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m
Hint Unavailable

A 100 cm3 aluminum cylinder expands 1 cm3. Determine the change in temperature. Solution
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˚C
Hint Unavailable

First Law of Thermodynamics

The energy in a system is defined by the heat added to the system and the work done on the system.

If work is done by the system, then the internal energy increases. Solution
Work done by the system decreases the internal energy of the system.

If 100 J of heat is added to a system, and the system does 20 J of work, then the internal energy is: Solution
Hint Clear Info
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J
Hint Unavailable
+Q is heat added to the system
-Q is heat taken away from the system
+W is work done on the system
-W is work done by the system

Flashcards: Thermodynamics and Gases

What is the difference between heat and temperature?
Heat is the change or transfer of thermal energy while temperature is the measure of the thermal energy
What is the only form of energy transfer that can occur in space?
Radiation
What types of heat transfer come from open flame?
Convection in the surrounding air masses and radiation in the form of visible light and other non-visible spectrums.
Is work done on the system positive or negative?
positive

+W
What are the three quantities in the equation

∆U = Q - W
U: Internal energy

Q: Heat gained

W: Work done by the system
What is the first law of thermodynamics?
The heat gained by a system minus the work done by the system equals the total internal energy:

∆U = Q - W
What is the second law of thermodynamics?
Entropy in an isolated system is either constant or increasing, but never decreasing.
Convert the following

0˚C = ___ K

100˚C = ___ K
TC = TK - 273

0˚C = 273 K

100˚C = 373 K
What would be the units of α, the coefficient of linear expansion?

∆L = (α)(∆T)(L_0)
As you can see from the equation, the units would have to be T-1

∆L = (α)(∆T)(L_0)
What is the unit of heat?
Joule (J)
What is heat of fusion?
The change in heat (q) when a liquid is converted to solid (at a constant temperature).
What is heat of vaporization?
The change in heat (q) when a liquid is converted to gas (at a constant temperature).
What is the SI unit of pressure?
Pascal (Pa)
What is isobaric?
Constant pressure
What is adiabatic?
No transfer or heat

(note this is not the same as constant temperature)
What is the pressure and temperature at STP?
101.3 kPa (or 1 atm) and 0˚C (or 273K)
What two quantities are compared in Charles' Law?
Volume and Temperature.
What two quantities are compared in Boyles' Law?
Pressure and Volume
Explain why increasing the amount of moles of an ideal gas increases the volume, even though ideal gas molecules are considered to have zero volume.
While it is true that ideal gas particles (atoms, molecules) are considered to have zero volume, it is the space between the gas particles that does occupy a volume and that's what counts.
State the equation to convert mass to moles
Moles = Mass ÷ Molar Mass

(AP) Atomic and Nuclear physics

Radioactive Decay

Classify each of the following types of decay: Solution
4He2+
-1e
+1e
γ
Alpha (α) decay
Beta-negative (β-) decay
Beta-positive (β+) decay
Gamma decay
4He2+ is alpha () decay

β- beta-negative () decay with an anti-neutrino:

β+ beta-positive () decay with a neutrino:

γ is gamma decay ()

Classify the names of these particles: Solution
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:
:
:
:
:
:
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is an antineutrino

is a neutrino

is a proton

is a positron (same mass as electron but same charge as proton)

is an electron

is a neutron

Radioactive Decay

Which of the following types of decays cannot penetrate lead, thin aluminum, or paper. Solution
Alpha (α) decay is the weakest of the decay types.

Radioactive Decay

Rank the three main types of decay products in terms of increasing ionizing radiation. Solution
Despite what you might think Gamma particles have the highest energy, but have the lowest ionizing radiation.

Alpha particles (He2+) are the best ionizers and react on impact mostly at the surface of the material because they are so ionizing (forming negative or positive charges).

Radioactive Decay

The mass of an alpha particle is 4 u and the mass of a gamma ray is 1 u Solution
'u' is an atomic mass unit and is 1 g/mol or 1.660538921(73) × 10−27 kg...

Gamma rays have no mass because electromagnetic radiation, or light has no mass.

(The mass would be 0u)

Radioactive Decay

Describe the effects of ionizing particles from radioactive decay on the body. [3] Solution
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Hint Unavailable
High energy alpha particles, He2+ are capable of ionizing molecules (including DNA, proteins, sugars, metals, gases) to form negatively or positively charged particles in the body. Even more ionizing than higher energy gamma rays that pass right through.

The He2+ alpha particle is very reactive because of its electron affinity. It will usually take two electrons from its surroundings (either one pair, or two electrons from different atoms), creating undesirable ions in other molecules in the body.

These charged particles are extremely reactive and any reactions with cellular components can change or impair function, which can result in various diseases, including cancer.

Scientists still have not fully understood the effects of ions in the body. Hopefully one day we will understand more.

Radioactive Decay

Which of the following is not considered a source of background radiation? Solution
Background radiation is always around us, and varies according to geographic location. You are expected to know these common sources of background radiation for this course: Sun (solar flares), soil, Nuclear bombs (hiroshima) and meltdowns (fukushima), and nuclear medicines...

Thermal radiation is not considered background radiation because it is not ionizing...

Radioactive Decay

Radioactivity is useful in people's daily lives. For instance alpha particles detect smoke in smoke detectors, beta particles are used as medical imaging tracers, and gamma rays are used to sterilize medical tools and even some food! Describe how the benefits of radioactivity can outweigh the known risks. Solution
(Answers may vary)

Radioactive Decay

Radioactive decay occurs in a chain as different products get produced in future decays. Decay chains always end when a stable product is produced. Solution
A stable product (element) will not decay radioactively and therefore the decay chain is stopped.

Radioactivity Equations

Write the decay reactions for the following. Include neutrinos or antineutrinos where applicable.

ParticleSymbol
Alpha4He
Beta-Plus1β+
Beta-Minus-1β-
Neutrino
Antineutrino

Beta-minus decay of Carbon-14 Solution
(N14 is not radioactive)

Where is an antineutrino

Note that 'e' is sometimes used in place of 'β' for beta decay

Beta-plus decay of Sodium-22 Solution
(Ne22 is radioactive)

Where is a neutrino

Note that 'e' is sometimes used in place of 'β' for beta decay

Alpha decay of Polonium-210 Solution
(Pb210 is radioactive)

Note that 'α' is sometimes used in place of 'He' for alpha decay

Radioactivity and Half-Life

Which of the following can increase the rate of radioactive decay of an unstable isotope? Solution
The rate of radioactivity cannot be influenced by temperature or other environmental factors. The reaction is spontaneous.

Radioactive decay occurs faster with a shorter half life when the total initial mass of the substance is very low. Solution
The half life decay time does not depend on the initial mass of the substance.

Use two side-by-side atoms of 14C as an example to explain that radioactive decay is random. Solution
  • Random means we cannot predict which of the two 14C will decay first.
  • Random also means we cannot pinpoint the point in time when any of the 14C atoms will decay (yes, even though we know the half life).

Half-Life Intro

Half-life is the amount of time it takes for the activity of radioactive material to be reduced by half. If a sample of radioactive material has an activity of 10 Bq, how what will the activity be after 3 half-lives? Solution
Hint Clear Info
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Bq
Hint Unavailable
3 half-lives mean the activity will be reduced by half, 3 times:

10 Bq

(1 half life)

5 Bq

(2 half lives)

2.5 Bq

(3 half lives)

1.25 Bq

If a radioactive material has a half-life of 12 days, and decays over 60 days, then how many half-lives have occurred? Solution
Hint Clear Info
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Hint Unavailable
The number of half-lives is calculated as:

Simple Half-Life

The half-life of Thorium234 is 24.1 days. A sample with 6.0 × 1015 atoms is placed in a capsule. How much mass of Thorium will remain after 10 years? Solution
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g
Hint Unavailable
Convert to mass first Convert units of time to the same, in days in years: Then calculate with half-life

Simple Half-Life

Carbon-14 has a half life of 5730 years. If a sample of 14C went from 100g to 60g, determine its age. Solution
Hint Clear Info
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years
Hint Unavailable
'A' stands for Activity, or Amount. Af is the final amount, and Ai is the initial amount.

Half-Life in Becquerels (Bq)

1 Becquerels (Bq) is the: Solution
The Becquerels (Bq) unit is based on the rate of decay. It is measured as the number of decays per second. The total number of decays (counts) in 1.0 seconds is the amount of Becquerels (Bq).

Half-Life in Becquerels (Bq)

If a sample of Calcium-47 has a half-life of 4.53 days, then what ratio of the initial amount remains after four weeks? Solution
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The fraction left is the ratio of the final amount divided by the initial amount. (or approximately 1.4% remains)

Half-Life in Becquerels (Bq)

Barium-140 has a half life of 12.7 days. If the activity is measured at 10,000 Bq today, then determine the time until the activity is reduced to 100 Bq. Solution
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days
Hint Unavailable
The initial is 10,000 Bq and the final is 100 Bq

Radioactive Reactions

Radioactive decay of Uranium238 emits an alpha particle.

Write the typical decay reaction of Uranium. Solution
First: Write the equation with Uranium and Helium on both sides
Second: Balance the atomic and mass numbers on either side of the equation to determine the unknown numbers.
Third: Look up on the periodic table the atomic number you just calculated and determine the identity of the element.

Calculate the mass defect of binding energy lost in the typical decay reaction of Uranium (Given: 931.5 MeV = 1.0 u) Solution
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MeV
Hint Unavailable
ElementAmu (u)
U238238.0508
Th234234.0436
He4.0026
Could use E = mc2, but the given information is a useful shortcut: 931.5 MeV = 1.0 u Convert to MeV 4.2849 MeV of energy is released, accounting for the difference in mass because the law of conservation of mass must be conserved. Energy can account for the missing mass!

Given the binding energies of some of these isotopes, and the total energy released during the reaction is 4.26 MeV, determine the binding energy of uranium-238. Solution
IsotopeBinding Energy (MeV)
238U?
234Th1777.66
4He28.29
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MeV
Hint Unavailable
Given the reaction, Set up the calculation for total binding energies... The total binding energy of uranium-238 is 1801.69 Mev

Radioactive Reactions

Iodine131 is known to decay via beta-negative decay. Iodine131 is can be detected in significant amounts at the site of the Fukushima Daiichi Nuclear Power Station accident in Japan (as a fission product of U235).

Write the decay reaction. Solution

Calculate the energy released by determining the difference in mass first. Solution
ElementAmu (u)
I131130.9061
Xe131130.9051
e-0.00055
Hint Clear Info
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MeV
Hint Unavailable
Calculate mass defect this way... Convert to MeV 0.4192 MeV of energy is released, accounting for the difference in mass because the law of conservation of mass must be conserved. Energy can account for the missing mass!

Nuclear Transmutation

It is impossible to convert one type of element into a different type of element. Solution
Nuclear transmutation can convert one type of element into another!

This was performed by Rutherford in the early 1900s.

Basically elements bombarded with alpha particles (He4) or protons (H1) will sometimes increase the proton number!

(Aside commentary: don't ask me how this has not been performed to make gold yet - I think it has to do with the high energy and high cost...)

Write the nuclear reaction for the transmutation of Nitrogen14 with an alpha particle. Solution
Notice that mass number is conserved, and that atomic number is conserved across the left and right side of the equation.

Determine the energy in the transmutation reaction, assuming the nitrogen atom is initially at rest. (The atomic masses of elements are given below) Solution
ElementAtomic Mass (u)
N1414.0067
He44.0026
O1715.9994
H11.0079
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J
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Determine the change in mass in the transmutation nuclear reaction. Convert to energy in MeV ... then Joules:

Based on the energy of the reaction, calculate the necessary velocity of the alpha particle. (Given 1.0 u = 1.6605 × 10-27kg) Solution
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m/s
Hint Unavailable
Determine the mass of an alpha particle, in kilograms, for use in the equation below. This occurs when the kinetic energy equals the energy of the reaction. (That's fast! FYI this is 0.707c and particle accelerators/colliders are required for are these speeds. The speed of light, c = 3.0 × 108 m/s)

Fission Fusion

Fission and fusion both release one or more neutrons. Solution
Neutrons are a product of either of the reactions.

Fusion is possible to achieve by humans on Earth. Solution
Well, fusion does occur in stars like the Sun, so technically it is possible. All elements in the universe were created in stars, out of Hydrogen.

However, since fusion involves the combination of two nuclei with positively charged protons that repel, extremely high energy is required to bring the protons close enough to overcome the electrostatic repulsion of the nuclear forces.

Identify the fission reaction Solution
Fission occurs when a slow-moving neutron is added to the nucleus of an atom which creates an unstable isotope that (fissions) breaks apart into two or more smaller atoms. This releases a high amount of energy and more neutrons. The mass of the products is less than the mass of the reactants, which is known as the mass defect energy in the equation E = mc2

Fusion 1: Fusion 2: Transmutation:

Complete the equation Solution
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Hint Unavailable

Nuclear Reaction Critical Types

Describe the difference between fission reactions in nuclear powers stations compared to the fission reactions that are designed for explosions (bombs). [2] Solution
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The control or explosiveness of a nuclear fission reaction depends on the number of neutrons produced in the fission reaction.

If 1 neutron is produced then the reaction is "critical" and controlled.

If 2 or more neutrons are produced, then the reaction is classified as "supercritical" and is explosive.

Nuclear power stations maintain a controlled rate of nuclear fission with moderators, control rods, etc...

Uranium Grades and Fission

Regular and enriched uranium are used in nuclear power stations, while weapons-grade uranium is sometimes used for, well, horrible things. What is the main difference between U235 and U238 that result in very different energy outputs? Solution
Grade% U235% U238
Depleted0100
Regular0.799.3
Enriched2.597.5
Weapons-Grade1000
U235 can fission more easily than U238. This means that upon the absorption of an extra neutron, U235 can release more energy.

When U235 absorbs the neutron it becomes U236 that has a high binding energy (excess energy) so when fission occurs, higher energy is released than U238 ...

Flashcards: Nuclear Decay Physics

What is the lowest energy decay?
Alpha decay.

This decay particle can be stopped by a thin sheet of paper.
Do gamma rays affect the atomic number or mass number of the reactant isotope element?
No, neither quantities change because gamma rays are electromagnetic and not matter/particles (with nucleons).
Which of beta-positive (β+) or beta-negative (β-) decays reduces the atomic number of a parent isotope?
beta-positive (β+) decay
What is background radiation?
The base level radiation detected in the air due to constant sources of nuclear energy like the sun, natural isotope decay, or the remnants of nuclear fallout.
What is a decay chain?
A decay chain is the conversion of isotopes into lighter isotopes as they decay, producing many different isotopes in a chain. The chain stops when a stable element is created.
What type of decay is this, and what missing particle is formed?
This is alpha decay in which an alpha particle is formed
What is a Becquerel (Bq)?
Becquerel is a unit of activity of a radioactive substance that is based on the number of decays per second.
Is it possible to create new elements?
Yes, this can be done through a special process called nuclear transmutation that collides elements with particles to make heavier particles. Also keep in mind that fission and fusion also create new elements.
What is the difference between fission and fusion?
Fusion is the combination of two (or more) lighter elements to make a heavier element. Fission is the splitting of an atom into two (or more) lighter elements.
Do fission and fusion both release neutrons and create energy?
Yes
Do nuclear power stations use nuclear fission or nuclear fusion to generate electricity?
Nuclear fission
Why is nuclear fusion not used to generate electricity?
Even though nuclear fusion is capable of producing large amounts of energy, like on the Sun, there are no human-made examples that produce a greater amount of energy that what is put in. This is because the positively charged centers of atoms repel too much to combine to create net energy.

Propagation of Uncertainty

Relative Error/Uncertainty

Calculate the relative error in the following measurement. Solution 23.21 ± 0.5kg
Hint Clear Info
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%
Hint Unavailable
Relative Error = (Absolute Error × 100%) ÷ Measured Value Measurements with the lowest relative error are the most precise.

Uncertainty Analysis: Calculating Propagation of Absolute Error/Uncertainty

Calculate the value with its propagated uncertainty in each of the different scenarios.

Constants:    a = 31.22 ± 0.05cm    Solution a × 10
Hint Clear Info
±
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cm
Hint Unavailable

Addition and Subtraction:    a = 10.2 ± 0.4cm,     b = 0.4 ± 0.1cm,     c = 1.22 ± 0.05cm    Solution a + b - c
Hint Clear Info
±
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Hint Unavailable

Multiplication and Division:    a = 42.9 ± 0.5kg     b = 21.3 ± 0.1m     c = 5.32 ± 0.1s2    Solution (a × b) ÷ c
Hint Clear Info
±
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N
Hint Unavailable

Exponents:    a = 14.22 ± 0.5s     b = 2    Solution ab
Hint Clear Info
±
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s2
Hint Unavailable

Logarithm:    a = 23.1 ± 0.2dB    Solution log10(a)
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±
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dB
Hint Unavailable

Practice with Propagating Absolute Error

(3.2 ± 0.1m) × (22.8 ± 0.2m) = Solution
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±
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Hint Unavailable
The uncertainty should have 1 significant figure... = 73 ± 2 m

Practice with Propagating Absolute Error

The error in the following calculation is ± 0.4J Solution (22.3 ± 0.5J) × 8
Multiply the constant (8) into the magnitude and the uncertainty:

= 22.3(8) ± 0.5(8)J

= 178 ± 4J

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Percent complete:

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★ WORK FOR IT & LEVEL UP
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